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To: Full Court; blue-duncan; BibChr; xzins; Corin Stormhands; Revelation 911
wikipedia

Wow, how do you argue with a source like that?

The KJV is still a TRANSLATION. It is not a perfect TRANSLATION. It is a good TRANSLATION. In many passages it is an INFERIOR TRANSLATION. It is also an ARCHAIC TRANSLATION. In other words, in order to understand the KJV, you often have to do your own translation. You have to attempt to explain the meaning of the English to an English speaking audience.

Frankly if you were honest, you would have to admit that if the KJV and the KJV only is the work of God and that any attempt to improve on it or explain it is a sin against God's word, then you would not be able to do any explaining of your doctrinal positions here on Free Republic. You should be limited to posting verses out of the KJV without comment.

The fact that you need to explain your doctrinal positions in your own words after you post your KJV verses means that the KJV needs to be (gasp) "paraphrased" in order to be understood.

So get off your high horse. Everyone translates their Bibles from whatever is on the page to whatever goes in their hearts and minds. The Holy Spirit does not teach us all things only when we use the authorized translation. The Holy Spirit is prefectly capable of transmitting his teachings even through such miserable translations as "Good News for Modern Man". I've seen people get saved after hearing preachers preach with that awful translation. I've also seen people fall into horrific heresy using the KJV only.

314 posted on 05/25/2006 6:48:57 PM PDT by P-Marlowe (((172 * 3.141592653589793238462) / 180) * 10 = 30.0196631)
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To: P-Marlowe; Full Court

Well, now, the two of you seem to be of completely different thoughts on this subject...

For what it is worth, I am not a Biblical scholar...yet what P-Marlowe says, rings true...that the Holy Spirit can and does, reach people, regardless of the Bible translation that they are using...

I am not convinced, about that the number of words permitted from one translation to another, necessarily means anything important...one would have to look at the words omitted, in what context and compare that to another translation...just simply omitting words, is not necessarily going to change the meaning or intent of a passage...it must be seen to be analyzed, and unfortunately I am not knowledgeable enough to do that...

Will just have to watch those better knowledgeable than myself argue it out, and then I will have to do my own homework, and see whose position rings the truer...


323 posted on 05/25/2006 7:00:42 PM PDT by andysandmikesmom
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To: P-Marlowe; blue-duncan; BibChr; xzins; Corin Stormhands; Revelation 911
The fact that you need to explain your doctrinal positions in your own words after you post your KJV verses means that the KJV needs to be (gasp) "paraphrased" in order to be understood.

I don't find that to be the case at all.

It's actually quite easy to read and understand.

When my now 15 year old son was in the first grade, he could read the AV, and we often read it to each other and discussed it. We still do.

324 posted on 05/25/2006 7:03:09 PM PDT by Full Court ("Lord, open the eyes of the King of England")
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To: P-Marlowe; Full Court; BibChr; blue-duncan; xzins; Corin Stormhands; andysandmikesmom; DocRock; ...
It is also an ARCHAIC TRANSLATION. In other words, in order to understand the KJV, you often have to do your own translation.

Archaic Words in the NIV

338 posted on 05/25/2006 7:19:26 PM PDT by Full Court ("Lord, open the eyes of the King of England")
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