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We can all agree that slavery is immoral. But does our society's rejection of slavery stem from the classic liberalism on which our nation was founded, or is there a Bibilical basis for it?

To the best of my knowledge, Muslim societies still tolerate slavery, and their Koran and religious leaders seem to have no objections to it.

Is our objection to slavery based on the Declaration of Independence, or on our religious heritage?

1 posted on 04/06/2004 10:11:04 AM PDT by ComtedeMaistre
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To: ComtedeMaistre
The Koran actively advocates enslaving non-believers. I don't recall reading anywhere in the Bible where enslavement and slavery are advocated. It is true that slavery is accepted in the Bible, but I can't think of anything in it that promotes it.
2 posted on 04/06/2004 10:14:35 AM PDT by Paleo Conservative (Do not remove this tag under penalty of law.)
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3 posted on 04/06/2004 10:14:41 AM PDT by Support Free Republic (Your support keeps Free Republic going strong!)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
There is something in there about doing unto others as you would have them do unto you.
4 posted on 04/06/2004 10:17:03 AM PDT by San Jacinto (Now is the right time for another campaign contribution to Bush/Cheney '04)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
The Bible does not directly condemn slavery. But the Old Testament establishes principles of just treatment of slaves. And the New Testament argues that all men, whether Jew or Greek, slave or free, are equal in the sight of God.

So you can make the argument that Christian principles of social justice and spiritual equality, which draw on earlier Jewish principles, make slavery undesirable and ultimately made slavery vanish.

It wasn't just Americans who outlawed slavery. The Pope pronounced against it early. The British outlawed it. Most of Europe followed. But, even earlier, slavery gradually disappeared in Christian Europe and only reappeared when European explorers encountered it among the Arabs and Africans and started a new era of slavery out of pure greed.

The modern west is the only place where slavery has been abolished. In all other places and times it was taken for granted.
6 posted on 04/06/2004 10:19:07 AM PDT by Cicero (Marcus Tullius)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
It doesn't condemn slavery. It does condemn slave traders

1 Timothy 1 9We also know that law[1] is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, 10for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine 11that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me.

7 posted on 04/06/2004 10:19:17 AM PDT by Tribune7 (Arlen Specter supports the International Crime Court having jurisdiction over US soldiers)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Timothy 1:10 - For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
9 posted on 04/06/2004 10:20:29 AM PDT by semaj ("....by their fruit you will know them.")
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Your question has had a million answers over the years. Many people have attempted to use the Bible to fortify positions on both sides of the slavery issue. There is no direct "Slavery is bad" statement. But, in my opinion, the major themes of the NT are contrary to slavery. It's certainly hard to see how one could attempt to carry out the second greatest commandment "Love you neighbor as yourself" with slaves.

Fundamentally I think it's silly to use such an analogy in an instance where one is not needed. If there is anything a Christian can stand firm on it's that killing a child is contrary to Christian principles.
10 posted on 04/06/2004 10:21:55 AM PDT by Lost Highway (The things of earth will grow strangely dim in the light of his glory and grace.)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Actually slavery exists in the bible with no condemnation. it actually says for slaves to honor their masters. With that said, an explanation of a type of slavery that existed back then is in order.

Other than captured peoples who were enslaved by their conquerors there was also those who, more or less, opted for slavery. If their debts got out of hand they could go to a rich man who would pay off their debts and they would be "enslaved" for a period of 7 years at which time they were to be released. If they didn't want to be released they could opt for a continuation of that slavery.

There is also a passage about not being a cruel master.

There is more to it than that, but that is a start.

11 posted on 04/06/2004 10:22:08 AM PDT by bibarnes (I'm Rich???)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
When discussing this, one also has to draw a distinction between slavery and indentured servitude. They're not the same thing, but the latter will often be misrepresented as the former.

Qwinn
12 posted on 04/06/2004 10:23:04 AM PDT by Qwinn
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Historically speaking it -- or at least the "push" -- stems from our British backround and kinfolk across the sea. Which, in turn, rises out of 18th c. enlightenment, yada...yada...yada.

We can all agree that slavery is immoral.

Question: Just why do we consider slavery immoral? I mean besides "Well, because it is!" What is it about slavery that we find so detestable as to declare it "immoral"?

14 posted on 04/06/2004 10:24:17 AM PDT by yankeedame ("Oh, I can take it but I'd much rather dish it out.")
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To: ComtedeMaistre
There is no direct prohibition against slavery in the New Testament that I have ever seen. Jesus command to "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you" ought to persuade Chistians not to own slaves. But there was no command to foribly overthrow the social order of that day - instead the institution was probably intended to wither away as the people converted to Christianity. Check out the letter to Philemon (regarding an escaped slave, in the New Testament) by the apostle Paul.
15 posted on 04/06/2004 10:28:00 AM PDT by TexasRepublic (Praise the Lord and pass the ammunition!)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Francis Wayland, author of "Moral Science" (1840ish) had an interesting take on this:

He said that although slavery was condemned by virtue of rational tenets, like "love thy neighbor" (self-evident thuths), Jesus admonished that hearts should be changed by opening the heart of the adversary by judicious application of love. He further calculates that had the Gospel called for personal freedom to be won by violence or flight, that the Roman Empire's movers and shakers would have been hardened in their intolerance of Christianity such that the 'cult' would surely have been wiped out.

It makes sense to me...it worked; but try explaining that to someone...although the MLK devotees should be able to get a handle on it. Ghandi, and all that.

18 posted on 04/06/2004 10:28:32 AM PDT by dasboot (I do not mock. Much.)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
You've gotten some good replies here, particularly from Cicero in Post #6. Remember, too, that what we experienced in the United States, chattel slavery, was different from most other slavery that has been practiced throughout history. Slavery has been a widespread practice throughout most cultures and periods. The Bible did not forbid it, but did not condone it either. Like Cicero said, the Bible was concerned that the practice was just and slaves did have rights and recourse to some justice. Most of the book of Philemon in the NT is about a slave, Onesimus (sp?). Paul basically says to do well what you are expected to do in whatever circumstances you find yourself. However, if Onesimus's owner freed him, then that would be better. But it was not demanded.

American slavery evolved into something else. It was man owning man with few if any rights. It was an entirely different category of practice, IMHO. I do not believe that this type of slavery can be justified in any way by the Bible.

19 posted on 04/06/2004 10:29:19 AM PDT by twigs
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To: ComtedeMaistre
There were various Biblical reasons for slavery: indebtedness, captured enemies, etc. Others have already discussed the topic of just treatment of slaves.

But the rubber meets the road in this aspect: Thou Shalt Not Kill. Abortion is the killing of a child who has God's gift of life in it.

There is no "Thou shalt not enslave." Nothing of the sort. Slavery is not killing, either. So for someone to try and compare the two makes no sense to me. At best, we're talking about a violation of freedom or civil rights with slavery, which cannot compare to the deprivation of life itself.

[And as an aside, I don't understand the slavery reparation people, either: if they want compensation for past crimes, then the way to go might better be related to the murders of relatives that took place, which have no statute of limitations, and in which the harm is indisputable.]

So I would not entertain the debate, for if handled on the terms of your opponent, you would have to accept that "apple=orange" from the very start.

21 posted on 04/06/2004 10:35:37 AM PDT by alancarp (NASCAR: Where everything's made up and the points don't matter.)
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To: ComtedeMaistre
I honestly feel like we have to be very careful not to shout where Scripture chooses to remain silent. And indeed, the only explicit prohibition of slavery I can think of in Scripture is the injunction against making fellow Israelites slaves in the Pentateuch. Where Scripture is not silent is when it comes to the treatment of slaves, of course.

I have a feeling that we modern readers tend to conflate our notions of slavery with those of the Biblical era. The American institution of slavery was truly evil in many respects, including the forcible abduction and despicable treatment of (most) of its victims. Thus I think that we could make a very convincing case that Scripture prohibits the practice of African slavery practiced in the United States up until its eventual prohibition.

I think it's much harder to make the case that Christian doctrine prohibits all slavery of any kind. But hey, let's give it a shot anyway, remembering of course what I said in the first paragraph.

The Old Testament is replete with reminders that the LORD God delivered the Israelites from slavery. In addition, the delivery of the Israelites into slavery again was depicted as a punishment. For example, Ezra 9:9 says, "Though we are slaves, our God has not deserted us in our bondage." Thus I do think that there is a general theme that the state of bondage is a harmful or oppresive fate; and if so, it would seem clear that as Christians it would not be acceptable for us to impose that fate on others.

Where this argument gets difficult is that there were explicit commands made to the Israelites to enslave certain peoples. But given that there were also commands to kill certain peoples, and we're comfortable accepting that such practices are wrong today, I think we can argue past that :)

Anyway, this is by no means complete, these are just my thoughts. I wish you the best in your studies.

23 posted on 04/06/2004 10:40:19 AM PDT by mcg1969
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Thou shalt not steal. Slavery is the theft of an individual's sovereignty of will.
25 posted on 04/06/2004 10:44:19 AM PDT by spunkets
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Your vaniety posts are not news. Put them in chat.
27 posted on 04/06/2004 10:46:35 AM PDT by The Other Harry
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To: ComtedeMaistre
One of the first problems is the meaning of slavery. Jewish slaves had significant rights that included instant freedom if they were beaten, rights to asylum from other Jews simply upon their request and inheritance rights. A better comparison to modern day is a slave is equivalent to an employee.
29 posted on 04/06/2004 10:48:23 AM PDT by VRWC_minion
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To: ComtedeMaistre
Yes, slavery is forbidden in the Bible now. Check the following:

1 Timothy 1:8-10 - "We know that the law is good if one uses it properly. We also know that law is made not for the righteousbut for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers and mothers, for murderers, for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers..."

1 Corthinians 7:21 - "Were you a slave when you were claled? Don't let it trouble you - although if you can gain your freedom, do so."

Philemon :15 - "Perhaps the reason he was separated from you for a little while was that you might have him back for good - no longer as a slave, but better than a slave, as a dear brother."

The reason I say "now" is because slavery was allowed in the Old Testament. Jews were allowed to enslave pagans of other nations. They were not allowed to enslave a fellow Jew, one of the faithful. Believers were to be enslaved only to God.

There are some who believe that this was symbolic, like so much else in the OT, of man's hopelessness without salvation in Christ. Pagans, who were enslaved already with their pagan gods and enslaved by their pagan rulers, were enslaved by believers as a visible reminder of the curse they put on themselves.

Today, the covenant of Jesus Christ is for all nations everywhere. Therefore we have no idea who will be saved tomorrow and who won't be. Therefore slavery is unacceptable everywhere, because anyone can follow Christ, and should therefore be enslaved only to God. So the slavery practiced int he American South, which often involved Christian masters and Christian slaves, was especially an abomination to God. But any kind of slavery is offensive.

The base of the abolitionist movement was made up of a lot of Christians because they understood it to be an issue of the rights of man.

30 posted on 04/06/2004 10:49:01 AM PDT by Zack Nguyen
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To: ComtedeMaistre
I like the letter Paul wrote to Philemon.
31 posted on 04/06/2004 10:49:19 AM PDT by AD from SpringBay (We have the government we allow and deserve.)
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