Posted on 12/21/2009 10:49:20 AM PST by mrs9x
Question - I have been hearing commentators state that the House can simply pass the Senate Health Care bill without the bill going to a conference committee.
My question is this - because the Constitution requires all revenue bills to originate in the House, can the House even do this? Wouldn't the bill have to go to committee, then the House vote on the bill first, then the Senate?
These days?
All rules are out the door.
“the Constitution requires all revenue bills to originate in the House”
From political speak is this a revenue bill?
Yes. It does not have to go to committee. The House can vote to adopt the Senate bill, in it’s entirety. I’m not sure who makes that decision about bringing such a vote directly to the floor, although I believe it’s Nance herself.
It’s not a rule that’s followed anymore. If the Senate tucks financial increases within a bill and the House approves...it serves to meet the constitutional requirement.
Just as there really isn’t a 2/3 requirement for treaties any longer...executive agreements often surfice.
The constituion is a bit tattered. It’s going to be shreaded.
Yes, Nancy Pelooser already stated that might adopt the Senate bill.
But the Senate bill would not have “originated” in the House.
It is a revenue bill because it contains taxes and spending.
Like they did TARP1??
If that’s the case, wouldn’t that upset the democraps who want the public option, abortion, etc.?
She better make sure she’s got all her ducks lined up in a row if she does that.
Easily, at worst it would required the house to remove all parts of some existing revenue bill and substitute in the Senate bill. Then sure maybe the bill would have to go back to the Senate, but it would go back unchanged.
Constitution, whats that. /s
That’s BS. It is a constitutional requirement, the rule cannot be waived.
Who’s gonna stop them?
McCain??? (snicker)
A couple of years ago I talked to my Congressman about this point...a Republican...he told me that there are any number of ways for the Senate to get around this requirement and they usually do.
Just sayin’.
I am really amazed to see so many people, even here at Fr, who don’t get it yet. We are NOT a democracy/republic anymore. This is pure fascism. They don;t care about the Constitution neither they care about us and public opinion. All our teaparties and townhalls are useless. This is FASCISM. Pure and simple.
It still would. The House would vote to amend their original bill, by adopting the language found in the Senate bill.
I must admit, I'm not a parliamentary expert, but I believe that the Speaker has great latitude here. This all may have to take place in conference, to be honest I really don't know. But, I believe that even in conference, the Speaker can limit what amendments may be offered. And, I also believe that it's the sole discretion of the speaker as to who actually compromises the conference committee members. So, I do think - as a practical matter - Pelosi can at least force a floor vote on the Senate bill. Whether or not it passes, is an altogether different question.
...............would be damn fools not to extract a few extra goodies of their own..........................
Yeah, the patsy,Ratsy’s who signed on to this omamanation early on, have gotta be pissed that they didn’t get in on the freebie action.
Maybe they’ll pork this thing up so badly that the state by state giveaways makes this garbage contestable in SCOTUS!
Doesn’t qualify as a “revenue” bill so
Yes. It can be “adopted” by the House.
If not “adopted” as is - it must go to conference.
If the Conference report produces a bill that has changes from the original bills, they must be voted on again.
The Senate cannot filibuster the motion to proceed to debate a conference report, but they can filibuster the debate itself. (no double filibuster)
Rush is saying that’s exactly what’s going to happen. That way, they can avoid conference.
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