Posted on 06/18/2009 8:48:47 AM PDT by GodGunsGuts
Radiometric dating is often used to “prove” rocks are millions of years old. Once you understand the basic science, however, you can see how wrong assumptions lead to incorrect dates.
Most people think that radioactive dating has proven the earth is billions of years old. After all, textbooks, media, and museums glibly present ages of millions of years as fact.
Yet few people know how radiometric dating works or bother to ask what assumptions drive the conclusions. So let’s take a closer look and see how reliable this dating method really is...
(Excerpt) Read more at answersingenesis.org ...
But you don't have any observable evidence that this is indeed the case, or ever has been.
Neither do you, and you just admitted that the measure is over time, not per event.
I have observable evidence that the energy released per event is constant.
No, you just admitted that energy release is not per event but is an extrapolation.
"I agree that there is some degree of "extrapolation" (and interpolation) involved because the energy release of every instance of a decay event was not observed and measured."
That appears much closer to my contention that energy release is over a period of time than your admitted extrapolation (and interpolation) to an event.
I admitted that it is an extrapolation because not every event was observed and measured. That you have to misrepresent my arguments is hurting your case. Energy release is per event, and the energy release of a single event is measureable. It is measured over time because there does not exist a device capable of instantaneous measurement and recording.
Very serious stuff that.
What's misrepresentation is to admit that decay energy is extrapolated and interpolated from observations over time and then claim you have observed 'per event'. Obviously you haven't and have admitted it twice now. I know it's not what you believe, but I am not misrepresenting your statements, you are.
This is much more consistent with my position that decay energy is constant over time than with your contention of extrapolating and interpolating to individual events.
It is not only measurable per event, it is predicable and calculable per event, per Einstein.
“I am merely attempting to ascertain whether you are in compliance with scripture as written in Leviticus 25:44-45.
So I ask again, where do you buy your slaves?”
Ummm Bucky??? God was speaking to Moses.
No wonder you have the idea that anyone that believes the Bible has weak faith, you clearly don’t understand what you read.
I suggest Bible school at a Christ centered church.
So everyone else is allowed to by slaves in distant lands and only Moses is geographically constrained in his purhasing options? I don’t think so. And by making that statement, is God condoning slavery?
You should read you bible a bit more critically.
“Ummm Bucky??? God was speaking to Moses.”
Another question: If God is addressing a specific individual in the bible, as he is addressing Moses in my passage, does that mean that God’s directive applies ONLY to that person? If not, then your rebuttal to my post doesn’t seem to be based on a sound argument.
How did radiometric dating turn into ‘where do you buy your slaves’?
“I suggest Bible school at a Christ centered church.”
I’ll consider it, but the pastor of the nondenominational megachurch in my neighborhood spends most of his time raising money, taking vacations, and screwing the cute chicks in the congregation. He doesn’t have a lot of time to spare for my salvation.
You have already admitted twice now that it is measured over time and extrapolated (and interpolated) to an event.
"I agree that there is some degree of "extrapolation" (and interpolation) involved because the energy release of every instance of a decay event was not observed and measured."
"It is measured over time because there does not exist a device capable of instantaneous measurement and recording."
Being measured over time is my position, proven by your own posts.
To continue to claim otherwise in the face of your own statements is laughable.
Actually, evidence not proof that:
...most people on these boards do not agree with a true literal interpretation of the Bible, especially when it comes to this type of subject.
This is the only thing I've seen that comes close:
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-backroom/1706571/posts?page=63#63
Try a smaller Christ-centered church. And keep in mind your salvation has nothing to do with any human being (except you).
“So everyone else is allowed to by slaves in distant lands and only Moses is geographically constrained in his purhasing options? I don’t think so. And by making that statement, is God condoning slavery?”
No...
No...
“You should read you bible a bit more critically.”
and...try to refrain from projections for a day or so.
Funny how they take things so literally when it suits their agenda, and so figuratively when it suits their agenda.
So if God’s directive applied to everyone, not just Moses, why did you base your contest on the fact that it was addresed to Moses? You added nothing to the discussion, and, by default, my original point still stands, unaltered in any way by your ineffective rebuttal.
“Another question: If God is addressing a specific individual in the bible, as he is addressing Moses in my passage, does that mean that God’s directive applies ONLY to that person?”
In this case it should be pretty obvious.
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