So, you cannot refute the simple reading and post thusly.
Wow, you ARE persistent in your continuous exposure of your ignorance, aren’t you?
Do you understand that the original text wasn’t in 20th century American English?
It took me about 3 seconds to find the explanation. Hint: it has to do with Hebrew writing style and verb tense. “Pluperfect” is the key word.
Now, run along and stop bothering me until you look it up yourself.