Wow, you ARE persistent in your continuous exposure of your ignorance, aren’t you?
Do you understand that the original text wasn’t in 20th century American English?
It took me about 3 seconds to find the explanation. Hint: it has to do with Hebrew writing style and verb tense. “Pluperfect” is the key word.
Now, run along and stop bothering me until you look it up yourself.
Please provide a link and I will review it. Thanks.
The translated version is in error?