Posted on 07/30/2004 8:17:31 AM PDT by Hillary's Lovely Legs
I am filling out a survey about gun ownership and have been asked about a .50 cal BMG rifle.
Could you please explain to me what this is and what it's used for?
Thank you
Well, Judge Reinhardt tried real hard in Silveira v Lockyer. The man did go on and on. (But he was on a mission to refute Emerson.)
He stated his reason quite succinctly. Furthermore, he acknowledged the three different interpretations of the second amendment. What he didn't state was why he believed the first clause to be limiting (ie., the RKBA is only associated with a militia), rather than simply descriptive of one possible use for arms.
"Saying" is not "refuting". A distiction with a difference.
Another cute but meaningless comment paulsen.
-- Everyone on this thread is refuting your irrational positions. You respond with more irrationalities. -- Round we go.
Goodbye tpaine.
You leaving paulsen? Good plan.
I be done with you.
Nope, -- as long as you're here, posting your anti-Constitutional BS, -- you'll continue to be our patsy.
I asked you what would happen if the lower court once again dismissed on Second Amendment grounds WITHOUT TRIAL.
The point is that the Supreme Court RULING in Miller is binding on the trial court. The lower court judge has no latitude whatever to ignore that ruling.
I pointed out that the Supreme Court has at its disposal the US Marshall's Service. At the request of the prosecution, the Supreme Court court remove that particular judge. They could have him arrested for contempt and jailed.
Have you ever heard of Judge Roy Moore. He is not a judge today. Perhaps he foresaw the results of his failure to obey a higher court's order. Perhaps not. But he is no longer a judge.
How about Brown vs. Board of Education? Where did the President get the authority to integrate southern schools?
What makes you believe that the Supreme Court would allow lower courts to just ignore their Miller RULING?
Ain't that the truth.
What he didn't state was why he believed the first clause to be limiting (ie., the RKBA is only associated with a militia), rather than simply descriptive of one possible use for arms.
Very true. He just assumed it right from the beginning of his meandering disquisition. Furthermore, he argued against himself when he stipulated that words used in one portion of the Constitution should have the same meaning in other portions, because if "people" means one thing in the first amendment, then it should mean the same thing in the second.
So at what point are we justified in concluding that a court opinion is wrong? Here we have a case where they simply made an assumption, utterly contrary to common sense, as well as to established rules of legal construction, without an attempt to justify it. There has to come a point where it's time to bite the bullet and say, "Yep, they screwed that one up."
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P.S. Another whopper from the ruling: "Historians have observed that '[n]o state at the time, nor any state before, had ever compelled people to carry weapons in their private capacity.'" That is flat-out wrong. Several colonies had laws requiring people to carry weapons to church (Indian attacks and such). Also, the 9th Circus obviously never heard of this law (see highlighted).
rp responded in post 438: I've always believed in the "standard model" (aka "traditional individual rights model) interpretation of the second amendment.
But the more case law I read, the more I'm drifting to the "limited individual rights model".*
rp wrote in post 551: 1) Your RKBA is defined and protected by your state constitution. That is my interpretation.
Now, how can you say you are drifting from the "standard model" to the "limited individual rights model" (which says there is an individual constitutional right to militia related weapons) and then say that you believe (ie, your interpretation) the Second Amendment is not meant to protect the RKBA from infringement by the States?
rp wrote: "The RKBA is a fundamental right that state legislators may or may not infringe, depending on their state constitution."
You stating your opinion or case law? Recall that you made such a distinction in an earlier post. My answer depends on which you are talking about.
RP wrote at #526:
-- "The RKBA is a fundamental right that state legislators may or may not infringe, depending on their state constitution."
rp wrote at #551:
--- "Your RKBA is defined and protected by your state constitution."
______________________________________
These two statements oppose each others logic, as a fundamental right cannot be redefined, -- and of course, -- our RKBA's is not being protected in many States.
It appears that paulsen has finally become aware that he is in a logical trap of his own making, and has left the field.
Well done to all.
It's not. The second amendment is to protect against federal infringement, not state infringement. Like I stated before, find for me one case where the second amendment was successfully used to thwart some state gun legislation. There are none.
Now, maybe you believe the bull$hit being spewed by tpaine that the second amendment protects your RKBA from state infringement. It doesn't and it never has. If it did, there would be at least one case where the courts have overturned some state gun law because it violated the second amendment. Ask tpaine to give you just one (he can't, there isn't one).
When a federal gun law is challenged, the second amendment is cited. Emerson, for example, violated a federal law which he challenged as violating the second amendment. This is where the federal courts get into their "traditional individual rights model" and "limited individual rights model", etc.
Apples and oranges, Ken H. You did read my post #558, didn't you? I really don't know that I can be any clearer.
"The RKBA is a fundamental right that state legislators may or may not infringe, depending on their state constitution."
"You stating your opinion or case law?"
It's a fact, supported by case law.
Now, maybe you believe the bull$hit being spewed by tpaine that the second amendment protects your RKBA from state infringement. It doesn't and it never has.
Irrational opinion, belied by the clear words of our US Constitution.
If it did, there would be at least one case where the courts have overturned some state gun law because it violated the second amendment. Ask tpaine to give you just one (he can't, there isn't one).
Never said there was one, paulsen.
The day will come when the Fed courts are forced into such an opinion, however. When that happens, it will also destroy the feds basis for ~their~ infringements. -- Which should give you a little clue on why it hasn't happened yet.
Not that a rabid gungrabbing anti-constitutionalist like you could ever 'get' a clue, of course.
It's a fact, supported by case law.
As for case law: I don't recall where anyone has claimed that the States (or the Feds, for that matter) have been restrained by case law on Second Amendment grounds. I can't think of any examples. Can you point me to a post where someone has made such a claim?
As for it being a fact, which you distinguished from case law: Justice Clarence Thomas has some things to say about that:
THE SECOND AMENDMENT: A GUARD FOR OUR FUTURE SECURITY by Andrew M. Wayment
In his concurring opinion in Printz v. United States, Justice Thomas acknowledged this fact: "Marshaling an impressive array of historical evidence, a growing body of scholarly commentary indicates that the 'right to keep and bear arms' is, as the Amendment's text suggests, a personal right."[160]
Furthermore, Justice Thomas speculated that "[i]f . . . the Second Amendment is read to confer a personal right to 'keep and bear arms,' a colorable argument exists that the Federal Government's regulatory scheme, at least as it pertains to the purely intrastate sale or possession of firearms, runs afoul of that Amendment's protections."[161]
Towards the end of his opinion, Justice Thomas made an interesting prediction: "[P]erhaps, at some future date, this Court will have the opportunity to determine whether Justice Story was correct when he wrote that the right to keep and bear arms 'has justly been considered, as the palladium of the liberties of a republic."' [end of excerpt]
-- THE SECOND AMENDMENT: A GUARD FOR OUR FUTURE SECURITY
IMO, you should listen to what Justice Clarence Thomas says.
Justice Thomas was commenting on a case regarding federal law. He said nothing about state law.
All here agree, with Thomas, that our right to bear arms is a fundamental personal right, not to be infringed.
Thus, it defies both common sense & common law to claim that States have been granted the legal power to infringe upon such basic rights.
Justice Thomas used the term "personal right to keep and bear arms".
How can there be a personal RKBA if a State or local government can violate it?
Is it the job of the Supreme Court to protect you from State laws which violate your personal right to life, without due process?
Yes. Due process, however, isn't violated by laws that are universally applied, regardless of how oppressive such laws are, unless such laws are enforced in an improper manner. Hence the word "process".
I'm not sure I get your point.
Are you saying that States can violate a personal right as long as they do it to everyone equally?
It gets back to Justice Thomas' point about a personal RKBA as enumerated in the Second Amendment.
If the RKBA is indeed a personal right as he suggests, can a State infringe that right without violating the Second Amendment?
"As for case law: I don't recall where anyone has claimed that the States (or the Feds, for that matter) have been restrained by case law on Second Amendment grounds."
I didn't say anyone claimed that. I said that no defendant has ever successfully used the second amendment as protection from some state law. If the second amendment protects a citizen from state gun laws, then where are the cases demonstrating that?
I can cite a half-dozen where the courts have ruled just the opposite -- that the second amendment affords no protection from state laws.
Yes, because the 2nd amendment doesn't apply to them. These are two completely separate issues you're conflating - how the right is defined by the Constitution, and who's restricted by it from violating that right.
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