[grey_whiskers]

You forgot to add your post-Pentecost, Church-Age reference.

Not necessary.

And WTF is the word "Church-Age"? Show me that term in Scripture, since you lay claim to Sola Scriptura, you hypocritical troll.

Was Mary “under the Law” at the time of Jesus' death?

After His Death, no. See the quote from Galatians from my earlier post.

Or are you suggesting the Death of Christ only began redeeming people from the Law after St. Paul happened to write to the Church in Galatia about it?

When did Mary stop obeying the Law?

As your fellow bigots said on this thread, you're "speculating". The Scripture says nothing of whether she completed the ceremonial purification. Either way.

But in the sight of God the Father, she was no longer required to.

Unless in your blind hatred of Catholics, you extend the hate to His Mother, and suggest that even though the rest of us were set free from obeying the law, she wasn't.

[Elsie]

{ Scripture says nothing of whether she completed the ceremonial purification. Either way.}

Make up your mind to either USE scripture or not!!

[kinsman redeemer]

Unless in your blind hatred of Catholics

There you go again!

____

Since your hermeneutics are so confused, let me make it even harder for you:

You wrote, "But in the sight of God the Father, she was no longer required to.

Show me how you know that Mary was no longer under the Law. (Your earlier remarks do not.)

Regarding Peter, your first "Pope"--
But Peter said, “By no means, Lord; for I have never eaten anything that is common or unclean.” And the voice came to him again a second time, “What God has made clean, do not call common.” This happened three times, and the thing was taken up at once to heaven. Acts 10:14-16

When did Peter, your first Pope, stop obeying the Law?

_____

Your positions, your personal attacks, your failure to rightly divide the Word, and your general attitude toward the truth are remarkable.

Now, I'm done with you. You will be replying to the wind.

BYE!

[Elsie]

The Scripture says nothing of whether she completed the ceremonial purification.

HMMMmmm...

---

It appears she did at one time in her life!

Luke 2:22-24

When the time came for the purification rites required by the Law of Moses, Joseph and Mary took him to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord  (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord”),  and to offer a sacrifice in keeping with what is said in the Law of the Lord: “a pair of doves or two young pigeons.”

 

 

The LAW! 

 

Leviticus 12:7-8

Then he shall offer it before the LORD and make atonement for her, and she shall be cleansed from the flow of her blood. This is the law for her who bears a child, whether a male or a female.
'But if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, the one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she will be clean.'"

 

[Elsie]

But in the sight of God the Father, she was no longer required to.

And we Prots are the one's specklating?

---

Sinless Mary??

 Not according to Rome's Book;    1 John 1:8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.

 

That's the way it is WRITTEN.

 

THIS is the way it is TAUGHT:  1 John 1:8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us; the only exception being Mary, Mother of GOD, of course.

 

 Rome has published facts, in it's book,  that have turned IT's 'Mary' into a HYPOCRITE, by painting her as SINLESS, yet writing of her going into the temple to make a SIN offering.