The amendment to the Constitution was considered on 09FEB and was passed in both houses by an improper “majority vote”.
It was then acted upon in the Senate without a Constitutional 2/3rds vote of the States in their Legislatures.
What amendment? That house Bill (HR-1?) granting the vote to anyone and everyone and specifying loose time limitations (along with more riders than I can remember)? I think SCOTUS will reject that law, presuming that someone challenges it. State legislatures have the authority to set election law.
Sounds like you are confusing a bad law with a constitutional amendment. ???
I still don’t know why, the minute the House managers were presented to the senate, Pres. Trump’s lawyers didn’t immediately take it to SCOTUS.
The amendment to the Constitution was considered on 09FEB and was passed in both houses by an improper “majority vote”.
It was then acted upon in the Senate without a Constitutional 2/3rds vote of the States in their Legislatures.
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Help me out. How can an amendment to the Constition be added by Congress? What am I missing here?