Well there is no difference. David was anointed king of Israel by Samuel and Samuel used a flask of oil and poured it over David. That is how YHWH of the Hebrew scriptures signified His covenant with David as king. So we have no mistranslation of the Greek Jews in the LXX. No misunderstanding of what it MEANT in Jesus' time either. So your point is lost as "they" knew what it meant. And if you really want to do some research on how the Hebrew and Aramaic languages developed from Sinai to the second temple, then study this a bit and let me know where you find 'anointed':
In the Hebrew language this god was, is, and has only been called Yeshu, the same as he is called in India. The Jews in Israel picked up that up from the Jews in Egypt who knew the myth from there. When the enhanced version of the myth showed in the Greek language they knew exactly who they were referring to.
You are ranging out of the Torah. These guys only translated the Torah. That where they coined “Christos.”
You are trying to tell me about Jewish history? I can tell you the names of the Christian leaders who went to see Hadrian, Quadratus and Aristides.