In the Hebrew language this god was, is, and has only been called Yeshu, the same as he is called in India. The Jews in Israel picked up that up from the Jews in Egypt who knew the myth from there. When the enhanced version of the myth showed in the Greek language they knew exactly who they were referring to.
You are ranging out of the Torah. These guys only translated the Torah. That where they coined “Christos.”
You are trying to tell me about Jewish history? I can tell you the names of the Christian leaders who went to see Hadrian, Quadratus and Aristides.
Well RLH - looks like our friend here is like a scratch record. the tranlators of the torah didn't 'coin' anything - as others here have pointed out/documented the use of the word "Christos" in the context of an annointed person (not rubbed) outside the OT was already well established.
It is further well defined within the context and usage of the NT
In the Hebrew language this god was, is, and has only been called Yeshu, the same as he is called in India.
Again, further evidence of the lack of scholarly and intellectual honesty in trying to apply this myth as truth. This only occurs after 800 AD and is not in the origional Gita.
Considering, by your own standards, since you were not there before Hadrian and do not have the minutes of the meeting with Hadrian in the original autographs, no you truly don't know this specific history. Welcome to your own relativistic model.
What part of the derivation of Yeshua from the tetragrammaton did you miss in mine and other's posts?
The same word 'mashach' used in 1 Samuel 16 is used in Exodus 29 and many other places in the Torah. So what's your point?