Posted on 10/13/2012 6:43:03 PM PDT by Jaguarmike
That same poll shows Romney up by five among independents. And yet this poll has a D+4 sample. That might be a little high, but it's not as outrageous as some of the others.
So how is this possible? Because to me, the numbers don't add up.
Does this have something to do with the early Ohio voting that shows Obama ahead 2-1? Yet, I've also read that Romney leads by five or six among likely voters.
And how does all this jibe with the early voting turnout numbers we've seen on this board = that show a depressed Dem turnout?
Any answers that could be given would be appreciated. I'll just state that if Romney leads with independents, I think he'll win.
I'm confused on this
Thanx....
Maybe so...
In 2004, OH had Ken Blackwell as Sec State (?)...
He seemed to keep the lid on things...
Don’t know who the person is now...
Hope he/she is a “friendly”....
Polls are declared to be within the stated margin of error 19 times out of 20. This might just be the 20th.
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