You are so compromised in is ridiculous. Jesus would never have given that command unless he KNEW she could fulfill it. Otherwise he is creating in her even more conflict of not being able to obey the master. Jesus NEVER taught that we would still sin...ever!
You are making yourself look increasingly foolish. God always forbade sin, and thus according to your logic no believer ever would sin! But while God must uphold His standard, he knows man will sin and thus he provided forgiveness, and grace for overcoming sin. And thus man one can characteristically live in victory, at least as regards knowingly sinning. Old time holiness Pentecostalism testifies to “entire sanctification” when one dies out to self in surrender to Christ, He being at home in them, (Eph. 3:14-17) and realizes a second work of grace in deliverance from the overt striving of the flesh, which i seek if it can be obtained, but which belief does not claim such no longer sin.
And which is only one aspect of your error, as it includes teaching that attaining this sinless walk occurs when one becomes born again, which, rather than being the beginning of growth in grace, is set forth as end of a stages of growth thru Masters type of meditation, so that “Salvation is only a basic step leading to rebirth,” “The very last stage of the salvation process is rebirth.” (How to Conquer Suffering Without Doctors, pp. 170-171)
And as Scripture is not the supreme judge, but Masters’ type of subjective “understanding” is, then whether a disciple of Masters sins is a matter of this esoteric judgment, and with God being responsible for what you may be doing wrong.
Thus as much as you attempt to focus on Christians not sinning, which some other who claim to be orthodox Christians hold to, not only is it incontrovertible that believers were born again at the beginning of their growth in grace by faith in the Scriptural, and that they sinned after that, but your error extends to far more than that, even to your unScriptural basis for determining truth, the other errors being a product of that.
Then just WHY did He allow the above verses to be placed into the bible?