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Is Bobby Jindal Eligible To Become President If He Was Born Before Parents Were Naturalized?

Posted on 11/12/2010 4:53:42 PM PST by Retired Intelligence Officer

I need some help on this. I was reading where Bobby Jindal was born to immigrants here on visas. If he was born in Baton Rouge before they became naturalized citizens, wouldn't that make him ineligible to become President? I am in a heated argument at another website over this and I need answers to this controversy. Any help would be appreciated.

R.I.O.


TOPICS: Chit/Chat
KEYWORDS: birthcertificate; bobbyjindal; certifigate; congress; constitution; illegalimmigration; immigration; naturalborncitized; naturalborncitizen; obama; palin; politics; retiredintelvanity; teaparty
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To: catfish1957

“So after almost 450 posts, is there are consensus of whether he qualifies or not?”

No.


441 posted on 11/13/2010 5:34:19 AM PST by Tublecane
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To: catfish1957

It’s obvious that Jindal is not qualified to be president. He was not a Natural Born Citizen at birth. His parents were not legal citizens yet when he was born 3 months after they arrived and they didn’t meet the residency requirements yet as immigrants. Jindal is a citizen by statute and not a natural born citizen as required in Article 2 Section 1 of the constitution.


442 posted on 11/13/2010 5:59:16 AM PST by Retired Intelligence Officer
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To: Retired Intelligence Officer

“Jindal is a citizen by statute and not a natural born citizen as required in Article 2 Section 1 of the constitution.”

What statute is that? The 14th amendment? And how is that part of the Constitution any less of a statute than Article 2, Section 1.


443 posted on 11/13/2010 6:14:47 AM PST by Tublecane
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To: Retired Intelligence Officer

Sorry, I meant how is it any more of a statute.


444 posted on 11/13/2010 6:15:23 AM PST by Tublecane
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To: patlin

“The founders dissolved ALL political bands.”

It occurs to me that there might be some confusion going around, and I don’t know if it’s intentional obfuscation, but I’d like to clear something up. The notion that English common law impacted American law after the revolution is not to say we continued under the British jurisdiction in any manner. No, it’s only to acknowledge the huge debt owed. Its coninued consequences on the development of American common law, the inspiration to be found in it for the revolution (many aspects of which are easily distinguishable in the Declaration of Independence) and post-revolutionary constitutional law (especially the Bill of Rights), and more.

By acknowledging the debt we do not intend to say every part of the tradition is at all times present at every level of American government to this day. However, we do reserve a bias in its favor for existing in some form, for obvious reasons. Centuries of tradition do not disappear, even in the 200 years we’ve been an independent nation.

As for the “law of nations,” it’s true that they actually still exist—now known as “international law”—in an enforceable form, unlike English law. However, it only covers the relations between nations, and then mostly by treaty. It has no say over domestic issues. Or, rather, no say but what we give it.

Much like English law, in that sense. Except, of course—and I’m not telling tales out of school—we know English law has the advantage. After all, how many countries abide by the law of the seas? How many recognize international law? Almost all of them. How many of them have the unique common law/parliamentery-congressional/constitutional system shared by the British and U.S.? A lot of them, now. But not back when. They converted by our example.

We don’t have courts very often checking international law to guide their decisions. We check Blackstone. We follow the basic outlines of their tort law, property law, contract law, labor law, family law, constitutional law. You can’t find that in the laws of nations, and you can’t find it in all those Frenchified countries.


445 posted on 11/13/2010 6:37:34 AM PST by Tublecane
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To: panthermom
If you go by the original intent, which is explicitly laid out in the Federalist Papers, not the interpretation, yes, he would be eligible, his parents are naturalized citizens who GAVE UP the allegiance to their birth country to become AMERICAN citizens AND he was born here!

But they were not citizens when Jindal was born. They were Indian citizens and, according to India Citizenship Act of 1955, Jindal was also a citizen of India by birth.

446 posted on 11/13/2010 6:43:29 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: La Lydia

Are Arnold S. and Maria’s children eligible to be president?


447 posted on 11/13/2010 6:50:40 AM PST by This I Wonder32460
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To: La Lydia

Are Arnold S. and Maria’s children eligible to be president?


448 posted on 11/13/2010 6:50:53 AM PST by This I Wonder32460
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To: Non-Sequitur

I didn’t realize his parents were still citizens of India. However, if your parents naturalized before your birth, I think you would be NBC.


449 posted on 11/13/2010 6:56:41 AM PST by panthermom
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To: panthermom
I didn’t realize his parents were still citizens of India. However, if your parents naturalized before your birth, I think you would be NBC.

If you believe that natural born citizenship status requires both parents also to be citizens then yes, the child of naturalized citizens born in the U.S. would be a natural born citizen under that definition.

450 posted on 11/13/2010 7:01:13 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: Non-Sequitur

That’s true but since Jindals parents weren’t naturalized yet when he was born that disqualified him from becoming a natural born citizen.


451 posted on 11/13/2010 7:10:54 AM PST by Retired Intelligence Officer
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To: This I Wonder32460

He became a citizen in 1983 and married Maria in 1986, so when his children were born, both of their parents were US citizens. So yes, his children, God help us, are eligible to be president.


452 posted on 11/13/2010 7:11:55 AM PST by La Lydia
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To: WOSG
"“Since the term “Natural Born Citizen” does not exist in the text, this Amendment cannot possibly change whatever the term “Natural Born Citizen” meant at the time of it’s passage.” - Really, so all black people are not natural-born citizens, just plain ol’ citizens. he he he. ... you are not a legal scholar, clearly."

Your point is nonsense. Like I posted, make your case in court. It won't fly. A legal scholarship is not required when a good nose can smell what you are preaching.

453 posted on 11/13/2010 7:15:06 AM PST by Uncle Sham
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To: Tublecane
".... simplify themselves .." !

I rest my case.

454 posted on 11/13/2010 7:15:24 AM PST by La Lydia
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To: Right Wing Assault

If you read the question you will see that it was about his birth only.


455 posted on 11/13/2010 7:15:54 AM PST by RocketRoland
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To: Tublecane
"Not if the words originally meant citizen at birth, as the vast majority of living humans (and an extreme minority of birthers) believes it does. In that case, any change in who constituted a citizen at birth would automatically change who was a natural born citizen."

Like I told your friend WOSG, make this stupid argument in court. Please.

456 posted on 11/13/2010 7:17:54 AM PST by Uncle Sham
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To: Retired Intelligence Officer
That’s true but since Jindals parents weren’t naturalized yet when he was born that disqualified him from becoming a natural born citizen.

Plus he would have been a dual citizen of the U.S. and India.

457 posted on 11/13/2010 7:19:56 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: chopperman

It’s funny how the terms of natural born citizen keep changing. First, it was if you were born in the U.S. or its territories. Then, it had to be if the parents were also citizens. Now, if the parents were immigrants, they had to be naturalized citizens at the time of the person’s birth. The rules keep changing. If that is the case, then why do we need BOs birth certificate? We know his dad was Kenyan and remained in Kenya, so what does it matter which form of BC Obama produces?


458 posted on 11/13/2010 7:25:21 AM PST by murron (Proud Mom of a Marine Vet)
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To: Tublecane
... naturalized citizens—the other category beside born citizens—to ...

Boxist.

459 posted on 11/13/2010 7:32:51 AM PST by bvw
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To: iowamark

1. The courts will not rule on NBC because its only required of the President and the Constitution only allows it to be contested in the Electoral College and in Congress. This is why all of the court cases against Zero have been thrown out under the grounds “Plaintiff has no standing.”

2. The following posts provide, in detail, why he is not eligible:

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/f-bloggers/2619619/posts#9

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/chat/2626433/posts?page=362#362

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/chat/2626433/posts?page=435#435


460 posted on 11/13/2010 7:35:19 AM PST by chopperman
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