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Also, in the Maillard reaction paper, Rogers and Arnoldi said: "Cotton was practically unknown in ancient times and was introduced in use only around 1350." But is that really true? Sources I have seen say that Arab traders were spreading cotton textiles throughout the Mediterranean by 1st century or earlier.
Interestingly, this would actually seem to support the Knight and Lomas hypothesis, odd as it is.
Thanks for the ping!