That's certainly what tradition teaches. It's true that Israel never had an explicit promise of eternal life in the old covenent. But the basic laws of the old covenent applied to the new with one twist: Christ's sacrifice removed the penalty of the law, death, for our past sins. And his live, Christ living in us, helps to ensure that we won't incur the penalty of the law by keeping us from future sin. Not much really changed biblically except in tradition.
Instead of you choosing the words Christian Traditions, I prefer the word scriptural proof. Also, where did you find the term “penalty of the law,” I find it no where in the NT, and I never said anything about Jews not being promised eternal life, what’s that about?
Christ living in us, helps to ensure that we won't incur the penalty of the law by keeping us from future sin. Not much really changed biblically except in tradition.
Helps? …..Helps?…. Not in my case, the only way I will see eternal life is if Christ takes care of it all for me, my works are as filthy rags, and so if Christ doesn’t save me, I haven’t a chance, since even one small sin I may not even be aware of, condemns me to death.
Spin? Here's my "spin". Is this an all inclusive list? Were gentiles free to do anything else? Could they rob? Swear? Slug their neighbors? No because this is a list of the pagan stuff they're supposed to stay away from. Where are they supposed to learn the other stuff that makes them Christian??
God has made them part of my hard drive programming, and I know when I sin or am about to sin way before any written law can be read by me.
Act 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
I explained this before.
Acts 15:19. Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:
V-20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
V-21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
Since the Gentiles were not allowed in the temple to hear Moses being taught, then James certainly wasn’t referring to the Gentiles learning the rest of law from them.
So why didn’t James simply tell them to observe the ten commandments? Which ones would have devastated them to find out they must keep it?
Please tell me why, at such a perfect opportunity, the Gentiles weren’t given the law? Why did they give them the 2nd and the 7th Commandment and leave out the other eight?
Why did they give them 2 of the Levitical laws, but not the other hundreds?
Let me tell you why, because they knew the Jewish laws were not to be given to the new Testament Gentile Church, but they weren’t sure how the Holy Spirit was going to handle it, so they made it as simplistic as possible.
While they didn’t want to burden them with all the laws they were struggling with, they were afraid the Pharisees and the other hard line Jews would accuse them of teaching against the laws of Moses. They used two of each groups of the laws, which were pure common sense, but still cleared them of possibly being accused of throwing out Moses law.
It had nothing to do with Gentiles going to the temple later, and hearing all the rest of the law, as taught by Moses.
Instead, this decision by the council in Jerusalem made it clear that it was a new day for the Gentiles, and all the hassling they had been receiving from the Jews, who had been telling them how they must become as a Jew, and keep all the laws of Moses, and this was settled once and for all.
Acts 15:30 So when they were dismissed, they came to Antioch: and when they had gathered the multitude together, they delivered the epistle:
V-31 Which when they had read, they rejoiced for the consolation.
Read that again,
CONSOLATION, = "exhortation," RV, "comfort"; Why did this news comfort them? Why did they rejoice? What was there about this news that was so great to hear?
Let me tell you again, It showed them and everyone there including the apostles, that the Jewish laws were not going to be forced on them, as this had been their concern.
Somehow the Holy Spirit was able to teach them with out the law which was written in stone, and later John had observed how well it had worked, and was able to assure them it had been the right way.
1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
The anointing abides in us, and teaches us all things, of truth and cannot lie. The anointing replaced the written law by placing it in our hearts.
JH
Act 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
and then said the following
Since the Gentiles were not allowed in the temple to hear Moses being taught, then James certainly wasn’t referring to the Gentiles learning the rest of law from them.
This is the 2nd time I've had to correct you about this. Gentiles weren't allowed in the Temple but they were and are allowed in synagogues. This is becoming rather disengenuous of you.
Because they already were. Are you laboring under some fantasy that they grabbed pagan worshippers off the street and dragged them in to be taught? It's not like today where we instant access to any information we want. Any gentile that was there was motivated. The ten commandments were an elementary principle, much like they used to be in Christianty until fairly recent times.
V-21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
And you know that Steven has already answered on this...twice. But tell me why else this verse would be included if not to indicate that they (gentiles) were already learning about God?