Thank you.
The apostles "laid their hands" upon the selected disciples.
Now, and only now, does Stephen become "full of grace".
I don't think you can say that. Just because he is mentioned at that point as being full of grace doesn't mean he only became so at that point.
Regardless, the laying on of hands is obviously a Confirmation or Ordination, restoring his baptismal grace.
It is not suggested that grace is not imparted at Baptism. That is entirely different than claiming Stephen became "Full of Grace" at Baptism. They are two entirely different things with entirely different meanings and it would be difficult for even you to twist the meaning.
Are you suggesting that only some grace is imparted at baptism, and this is different than being full of grace? Is Baptism perhaps a partial cleansing?
In order to give you the benefit of the doubt I looked for "Full of Grace" in the Catholic Catechism. There are 10 entries. 2 for Jesus and 8 for Mary. That is to be expected based on the special veneration of Mary. (sly smile).
I'm sure the God of the Google Search in impressed.
To repeat; there is no Biblical or CC reference to any person becoming "Full of Grace" at Baptism.
That you understand, anyway. You were doing much better just claiming my words have no meaning, than you are trying to understand them.
SD
That you understand, anyway. You were doing much better just claiming my words have no meaning, than you are trying to understand them.
It is simple, unless you are so full of your delusions of intellectual superiority that you can't see beyond your snotty nose. THERE IS NO BIBLICAL OR CATHOLIC CATECHISM REFERENCE TO ANYONE BUT JESUS (2 TIMES) AND MARY (8 TIMES) BEING "FULL OF GRACE".
Regardless, the laying on of hands is obviously a Confirmation or Ordination, restoring his baptismal grace.
What? More Gospel according to Dave? Why don't you just read the Bible rather than winging it?