Replies

Mary got the grace before the Crucifixion (in time, anyway). She was full of grace before Jesus was even born, when the Annunciation of His Birth was made. Same effect - sinlessness; different instrument - Baptism versus IC; same source - Crucifixion.

Words, words, words. Without meaning, but words nevertheless. Do you get paid by the word?

Just because you do not understand, does not mean there is no meaning there. If I thought it would do any good, I would entertain your questions on this difficult passage I just wrote. But since you show no desire to learn, what is the point?

Don't bother. It is evident there is no one with your intellectual prowess, certainly not an old fool like me. (Of course this is all in your mind but, whatever...)

There is one simple question I asked on Post #341 which you seem to have overlooked however. Even my simple mind would be able to comprehend, I believe- that is - maybe - possibly. Well, in any event, let's try one more time.

#341

(SD) Yes, of course. Except that Stephen got this grace through Baptism and the coming of the Holy Spirit, after being born in the normal state. This was all after the Crucifixion, of course.

(OR) Please show me Scripture where Stephen received his "grace" through Baptism.