I'm familiar with your assertion regarding the "that he should deceive the nations no more." But the issue I see is that according to 2 Cor. 4:4, that is
precisely what Satan is doing now.
Thats probably my biggest objection of them all.
I'm familiar with your assertion regarding the "that he should deceive the nations no more." But the issue I see is that according to 2 Cor. 4:4, that is precisely what Satan is doing now. Thats probably my biggest objection of them all.
If you will re-read what I said in my series of e-mails, you will discover that I affirmed the idea found in 2 Corinthians 4:4.
So, wherein consists your confusion?