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Defending the Deuterocanonicals
CIN ^ | James Akin

Posted on 08/19/2002 5:30:51 PM PDT by JMJ333

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To: XeniaSt
The Apocrypha, those books included in the Roman Catholic Canon, were never quoted in the New Testament. The Apocrypha was accepted as part of the Catholic Canon at the Council of Trent in A.D. 1546.

From the article:

The canon of Scripture, Old and New Testament, was finally settled at the Council of Rome in 382, under the authority of Pope Damasus I. It was soon reaffirmed on numerous occasions. The same canon was affirmed at the Council of Hippo in 393 and at the Council of Carthage in 397. In 405 Pope Innocent I reaffirmed the canon in a letter to Bishop Exuperius of Toulouse. Another council at Carthage, this one in the year 419, reaffirmed the canon of its predecessors and asked Pope Boniface to "confirm this canon, for these are the things which we have received from our fathers to be read in church." All of these canons were identical to the modern Catholic Bible, and all of them included the deuterocanonicals.

This exact same canon was implicitly affirmed at the seventh ecumenical council, II Nicaea (787), which approved the results of the 419 Council of Carthage, and explicitly reaffirmed at the ecumenical councils of Florence (1442), Trent (1546), Vatican I (1870), and Vatican II (1965).

41 posted on 08/20/2002 1:50:14 PM PDT by JMJ333
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To: Gophack
Go I have looked and found NO Direct quotes to Matthew and infact some seem not at all connected or only broadly..I decided that the RC church does not know how to cross reference scripture or they are desperate to tie this non inspired literature to Jesus..Yes the Jews shared a common culture that would have included some literature but that does not make it infallible or inspired . SHOW ME SOME DIRECT QUOTES
Here are some of my findings I did Matthew and decided it is a waste of time and energy




Matthew 4:4 Wisdom 16:26.......................deut 8:3
Matthew 4:15 1 Maccabees 5:15 .............Isa 9;1
Matthew 5:18 Baruch 4:1
Matthew 5:28 Sirach 9:8............ 2 Sam11;2-5, Job31;1
Matthew 5:2ss Sirach 25:7-12............???no relationship visible
Matthew 5:4 Sirach 48:24....???no relationship
Matthew 6:7 Sirach 7:14.....1 kings 18:26
Matthew 6:9 Sirach 23:1, 4......ps38;9,69;17-19
Matthew 6:10 1 Maccabees 3:60.....(no such verse..chapter ends at 59)
Matthew 6:12 Sirach 28:2........EX34;7, Ps 32;1
Matthew 6:13 Sirach 33:1........... no quote
Matthew 6:20 Sirach 29:10s...no quote ,
Matthew 6:23 Sirach 14:10 ........no quote
Matthew 6:33 Wisdom 7:11......no quote
Matthew 7:12 Tobit 4:15........no quote
Matthew 7:12 Sirach 31:15......no quote
Matthew 7:16 Sirach 27:6.......no quote ,broad connection
Matthew 8:11 Baruch 4:37...........Isa49;12
Matthew 8:21 Tobit 4:3.......no quote broad application to Dan 7:13, actually poor application to Tobit it misuses the "saying "as understood by the Jews

Matthew 9:36 Judith 11:19.....Numbers 27;17,Ezk34;5,Zech 10;2
Matthew 9:38 1 Maccabees 12:17.......No relationship
Matthew 10:16 Sirach 13:17...LOL no relationship
Matthew 11:14 Sirach 48:10...Mal 4;5
Matthew 11:22 Judith 16:17.......Not a quote indirect application
Matthew 11:25 Tobit 7:17 Ps 8:2 (indirect ) Tobit no relationship
Matthew 11:25 Sirach 51:1...just a praise verse no quote
Matthew 11:28 Sirach 24:19....Jer 31;25 (indirect no quote)...no relationship to Sirach

Matthew 11:28 Sirach 51:23......no quote ..Poor relationship
Matthew 11:29 Sirach 6:24s...no quote poor relationship
Matthew 11:29 Sirach 6:28s...no quote poor relationship
Matthew 11:29 Sirach 51:26s..no quote fair relationship..direct quote Jer 6;16
Matthew 12:4 2 Maccabees 10:3......no quote poor relationship
Matthew 12:5 Sirach 40:15...no quote no relationship
Matthew 13:44 Sirach 20:30s........no quote no relationship
Matthew 16:18 Wisdom 16:13........no quote no relationship
Matthew 16:22 1 Maccabees 2:21.....no quote no relationship
Matthew 16:27 Sirach 35:22... Pro 24 ;12..no direct quote but application to Sirach
Matthew 17:11 Sirach 48:10......no quote nor relationship
Matthew 18:10 Tobit 12:15.......no quote , no relationship
Matthew 20:2 Tobit 5:15...no quote , no relationship
Matthew 22:13 Wisdom 17:2...........no quote no direct application
Matthew 23:38 Tobit 14:4..........1 kings 9;7f, Jer22;5 (direct reference) Tobit no quote good application)
Matthew 24:15 1 Maccabees 1:54 ......Dan9;27 (stated as a quote of daniel in the text) Poor Mccabees application
Matthew 24:15 2 Maccabees 8:17...no quote no direct application ( this is a historical application)
Matthew 24:16 1 Maccabees 2:28....... No quote No prophetic application..historic one only
Matthew 25:35 Tobit 4:17........Isa 58;7, Ezek 18 7, 16.....NOapplication infact seems the opposite
Matthew 25:36 Sirach 7:32-35......Isa 58;7,Ezek18;7, Job31;32 No direct quote to sirach..good application)
Matthew 26:38 Sirach 37:2..no quote
Matthew 27:24 Daniel 13:46........Deut 21 6-8
Matthew 27:43 Wisdom 2:13......almost direct from Ps 22;8...no direct application in Wisdom
Matthew 27:43 Wisdom 2:18-20 no direct quote fair application

I quit here it is a waste of time. there are NO DIRECT quotes from the mouth of Jesus

For others that would like to kill some time here is a link

http://www.nccbuscc.org/nab/bible/alpha.htm

42 posted on 08/20/2002 2:00:54 PM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7
Are you saying because there are "no direct quotes from Jesus" that everything the apostles said is irrelevant? Are you suggesting that these books WEREN'T in the bible commonly used by the apostles and other Jews at the time of Jesus?
43 posted on 08/20/2002 2:17:15 PM PDT by Gophack
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To: RnMomof7
By the way, I will grant you that James Akin, scripture scholar, wrote at the beginning of the list (which you must have read):

Hebrews 11:35 is an indisputable reference to 2 Maccabees 7, but many are not so clear as there may be only a single phrase that echoes one in a deuterocanonical book (and this may not be obvious in the translation, but only the original languages).

This is the same with New Testament references to the protocanonical books of the Old Testament. How many New Testament references there are to the Old Testament depends in large measure on what you are going to count as a reference.

As a result, many scholarly works simply give an enormous catalogue of all proposed references and leave it to the individual interpreter to decide whether a given reference is actual or not.

So, he concedes that this is a list that has been put together, but someone with training in translations and scripture and history should go through each phrase and determine whether it is a specific reference, or not.

Still, I will maintain that no one has refuted that these books were in the bible of the time of the apostles and Jesus Christ and if they were, why would they not today be considered Scripture?

44 posted on 08/20/2002 2:22:09 PM PDT by Gophack
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To: JMJ333
***From Judith we have references to 3)women as priests/or pastors.***

Please explain how this supports Catholic theology and was avoided by Protestants in Luther's era? Is there a specific passage to reference in this?

***And from Daniel we have references to 4) the papacy***

Daniel 14 (RC Bible) it seems is the same as Bel & the Dragon in the copy of the Apocrupha I have. So where is the Papacy taught or referenced in this chapter?

45 posted on 08/20/2002 2:25:08 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: Catholicguy; JMJ333
The question was what RC doctrines are found in the Deutero Canonical Books / Apocrypha that would be a motivation for Protestants to reject these books -- as the article's author claimed.

Are we only talking about purgatory? If so, let's discuss the four verses in question and then agree that beyond this there is nothing distinctly Catholic taught in this second set of books.

I was recently told by a Catholic friend who has a very good knowledge of his faith that he found very little doctrinal information in the Apocrypha that isn't in the OT or NT. He mentioned purgatory as the exception. In reading the article, I am thinking he just might be right.

JMJ333's list of other doctrines and references so far is not very convincing that he was wrong.
46 posted on 08/20/2002 2:52:18 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: Gophack
I am saying that Jesus quoted the books in the Jewish /protestant canon that verifies that Jesus saw them as inspired and HIS word

As I said earlier the Deuterocanonicals are beautiful literature and some History although I understand there are some historical errors..but eithor way they are not directly quoted.

Some of those cross references actual said the opposite of the gospel verses..the author was just trying to find some common ground with the book of Matthew.. One could read Shakespeare   and find some commonality

If I had a day to kill I suspect the rest of the cross references are as useless

47 posted on 08/20/2002 2:52:55 PM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7
I found this historical account (NOT written by a Catholic) which I thought was very interesting on the canon of Scripture. You might find it interesting as well. It doesn't not definitively conclude that Protestants or Catholics are right or wrong, but brings a historical perspective the the debate which is useful.

The Old Testament Canon

God bless.

48 posted on 08/20/2002 2:57:07 PM PDT by Gophack
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To: Gophack; RnMomof7
***I found this historical account (NOT written by a Catholic)***

This is not the case. He is a Catholic by his own admission.

Steve Brandt, the author of the article, includes an anotated bibliography on his website with the following autobiographical note:

Catholicism and Fundamentalism by Karl Keating

I read this book years ago because I wanted to understand Catholicism better. Should I regard it as Christian or as a Cult? That was my question. When I was halfway through the book I began to feel good about Catholicism. In fact, it was much less weird than I had thought. By the time I finished, I was scared. I was afraid that Catholicism was the one true Church - a position I eventually decided to accept.

PhD training has taught me to check sources. Why did you conclude he was NOT a Catholic???

49 posted on 08/20/2002 3:17:44 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: drstevej
I see. you wanted the 4 verses in Maccabees that talks about purgatory. My fault I misread you. I will search for them. In the meantime, you have still not given a reason as to why the apostles were wrong for using the spetuagint, and why the Protestants were right for throwing them out.
50 posted on 08/20/2002 3:23:51 PM PDT by JMJ333
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To: drstevej
PhD training has taught me to check sources. Why did you conclude he was NOT a Catholic???

Evidently, Gophack ( a non PhD ?) made an error. Now, instead of straining at knats maybe you (PhD ?) can refute the article? Or is that just it? You can’t refute it so you look for the knats?

No problem.

51 posted on 08/20/2002 3:27:02 PM PDT by Sock
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To: drstevej
I apologize for the misunderstanding. He said he wasn't arguing from the Catholic or the Protestant perspective, and his conclusion is definitely not the Catholic position (which leaves the question on the authenticity of the DC's open). I thought that the information on the historical background interesting, and thought RN would as well.

I apologize for any confusion. I guess I should spending more time reading!!!!!!! :-)

52 posted on 08/20/2002 3:28:27 PM PDT by Gophack
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To: RnMomof7
If I had a day to kill I suspect the rest of the cross references are as useless

You waste hour after hour, day after day, unproductively posting idiocy at this site and you have the nerve to make a comment like that?

Matthew 6:10 1 Maccabees 3:60.....(no such verse..chapter ends at 59)

You’re a chattering simpleton. You don’t need to be a “PhD” to realize this may be a reference to a different Bible translation.

From the Douay Rheims:

1 Maccabees 3:60. Nevertheless, as it shall be the will of God in heaven, so be it done.

53 posted on 08/20/2002 3:33:23 PM PDT by Sock
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To: drstevej
Here are your 4 verses from 2 Macc. 12:43–45

43:And making a gathering, he sent twelve thousand drachms of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously, concerning the resurrection, 44:For if he had hoped that they were slain should rise again, it would have seemed superfluous and vain to pray for the dead, 45:and because he considered that they who had fallen asleep with godliness, had great grace laid up for them.

Okay--clear reference for praying for the dead. Luther still used it as an appendix even if he did remove it as part of scripture. And on who's authority did he remove the scripture? Why did he think the apostles wrong? Why do you feel that the first 1500 years of christianity erred in this matter?

54 posted on 08/20/2002 3:41:27 PM PDT by JMJ333
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To: JMJ333
And on who's authority did he remove the scripture?

Forgive me, in advance for jumping in here so abruptly.

I’ll tell you whose authority -- his own. These inspired writings which had been cherished and venerated for 1000 or 1200 years were held in contempt by the heresiarch. Why? Because they did not suit his new doctrines and opinions. He had arrived at the heresy of private judgment – of picking and choosing religious doctrines and whenever ANY book, such as Machabees, taught a doctrine that was repugnant to his individual taste – as, for example, that “it is a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead that they may be loosed form sins” – well, so much the worse for the book; “THROW IT OVERBOARD” was his sentence, and overboard it went.

55 posted on 08/20/2002 3:51:55 PM PDT by Sock
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To: JMJ333
During the first century, the Jews disagreed as to what constituted the canon of Scripture. In fact, there were a large number of different canons in use, including the growing canon used by Christians. In order to combat the spreading Christian cult, rabbis met at the city of Jamnia or Javneh in A.D. 90 to determine which books were truly the Word of God.

Begging your pardon for jumping into what is essentially a Christian thread. The Hebrew scriptural canon was sealed much earlier, at the time of the Knessiah Gedolah (Great Synod) at the end of the Babylonian exile and the beginning of the Second Temple. But because some "modern biblical scholars" wished to assign a later date to some of the scriptures, they arbitrarily moved the sealing up to Yavneh. But according to Jewish rabbinic authority, the scriptures were sealed long before that. The Book of Esther was the latest book of scripture included in the Hebrew canon.

56 posted on 08/20/2002 3:57:00 PM PDT by Alouette
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To: Sock
No! Jump right in. I am glad to see you and to have patched things up with you. =)
57 posted on 08/20/2002 4:03:38 PM PDT by JMJ333
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To: Alouette
Hi. =)

When was the great synod, and what do you say to this part of the article:

During the first century, the Jews disagreed as to what constituted the canon of Scripture. In fact, there were a large number of different canons in use, including the growing canon used by Christians. In order to combat the spreading Christian cult, rabbis met at the city of Jamnia or Javneh in A.D. 90 to determine which books were truly the Word of God. They pronounced many books, including the Gospels, to be unfit as scriptures. This canon also excluded seven books (Baruch, Sirach, 1 and 2 Maccabees, Tobit, Judith, and the Wisdom of Solomon, plus portions of Esther and Daniel) that Christians considered part of the Old Testament.

Why did they meet if it had already been sealed?

58 posted on 08/20/2002 4:06:32 PM PDT by JMJ333
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To: Gophack; Sock; RnMomof7
No problem, Gophack. In looking at the site he appeaars to he a bit ecclectic.

Sock, you said,

***Now, instead of straining at knats maybe you (PhD ?) can refute the article? Or is that just it? You can’t refute it so you look for the knats?***

What are knats?. In Baton Rouge we have Gnats; however it's the mosquitos around here that need restraining at present. Know what I mean?

I also noted in your post the question mark after the PhD, sounds like you are skeptical.

I'm still trying to determine whether the article needs refutation. However, I do appreciate your interruption of what had been a cordial discussion.

59 posted on 08/20/2002 4:09:28 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: Gophack
So, he concedes that this is a list that has been put together, but someone with training in translations and scripture and history should go through each phrase and determine whether it is a specific reference, or not.

LOL Go I am NO scholar at all. I just love the word of God and like to read in context..Most of the "cross references "do not fit in context.....This is terrible scholarship

Still, I will maintain that no one has refuted that these books were in the bible of the time of the apostles and Jesus Christ and if they were, why would they not today be considered Scripture?

Were they part of the Jewish canon at the time of Jesus or simply historical and wisdom writtings ?

The Hebrew Canon: Among Jews, the oldest canon appears to have been the one defining the Torah (the first five books of modern Bibles), which was not only the central document of Jewish faith but also the fundamental law of the Jewish nation. These five books reached final form and were set apart not earlier than the mid-sixth and not later than the fourth century b.c. It is the one canon upon which all Jewish groups, and also Samaritans and Christians, have usually agreed.

Alongside the Torah, most Jews of the first century a.d. appear also to have accepted a second canon of somewhat less authority, called the ‘Prophets.’ This included historical books (Joshua through 2 Kings, but not Ruth), as well as the more strictly prophetic books of Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, and the Twelve Prophets (Hosea through Malachi in the Protestant order). The remaining titles of the Hebrew Bible—the total list corresponding to the canon of the Protestant ot—are known as the ‘Writings’ (Ruth, Esther through Song of Solomon). The canon of Prophets may be almost as old as that of Torah, but neither it nor the Writings was accepted by Samaritans or, perhaps, by Sadducees. The canon of Writings probably reached final form only after the first Jewish war against Rome (a.d. 66-70), under the leadership of the rabbinic courts at Jabneh (Jamnia). In the Dead Sea Scrolls, which were hidden away during that war, a wide variety of writings are found, with no obvious canonical distinctions among them.

The Hebrew canon was developed among Jews who spoke Hebrew or Aramaic. Many Jews of late antiquity, however, spoke only Greek. As early as the third century b.c., Greek versions of the Hebrew books were being made for their use. Some of these Greek books have rather different forms from those they took in the Hebrew canon (e.g., Jeremiah and Daniel); others were ultimately excluded from the Hebrew canon (e.g., Ecclesiasticus). There were also original works written in Greek, such as the Wisdom of Solomon, which came to be canonical only in the Greek language realm. The result was a larger, but somewhat ill-defined, canon of writings revered among Greek-speaking Jews.

60 posted on 08/20/2002 4:15:06 PM PDT by RnMomof7
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