[SoothingDave]

Also, "He has become my salvation" could just as easily suggest a change in me, don't you think?

It could. But it doesn't.

"Has become". Present perfect tense. Are you suggesting that Jesus was born 700 BCE?

Who says the prophet was only capable of speaking about himself in the present tense?

SD

[malakhi]

It could. But it doesn't.

That's your opinion.

Who says the prophet was only capable of speaking about himself in the present tense?

Nope, Dave, you can't have it both ways. You have claimed that it doesn't refer to the prophet. So you have to accept that he is referring to God. So Isaiah is saying that "God has become my salvation" -- which means that this happened at or prior to the time Isaiah wrote the passage.