That's your opinion.
Who says the prophet was only capable of speaking about himself in the present tense?
Nope, Dave, you can't have it both ways. You have claimed that it doesn't refer to the prophet. So you have to accept that he is referring to God. So Isaiah is saying that "God has become my salvation" -- which means that this happened at or prior to the time Isaiah wrote the passage.
Certainly.
Nope, Dave, you can't have it both ways.
Sure I can.
You have claimed that it doesn't refer to the prophet.
I did no such thing. I said that the prophet refers to God "has become his salvation."
That doesn't have to have a meaning that is autobiographical to the prophet. It may have meant that, in one way, but now it can be seen in a Christian light as well. The prophet, as an oracle of God, expressed the Truth.
SD
So you have to accept that he is referring to God. So Isaiah is saying that "God has become my salvation" -- which means that this happened at or prior to the time Isaiah wrote the passage.