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To: tHe AnTiLiB; XeniaSt
Please put 2 and 2 together. I'll phrase it differently; God would not allow himself to be born into an imperfect womb. It is possible for God to keep someone from sin, right?

If a woman is not perfect, and has sin like all of us, does this effect her organs. Does it leave mud stripes in the flesh or is it contaminated?

Since no blood from the woman donor goes into the fetus, and the womb is like a fleshy eggshell, that doesn't leave traces of itself on that which was in it, how can this make the fetus unclean as you imply?

Jesus said he came for the sick, not the healthy, the sinner, not the righteous, and angered the scribes and Pharisees by spending His time with them.

Since He came for the sinner, does it seem reasonable that he would require a divine womb, or would he be born from a woman who represented those He came to save?

JH :-)

47,336 posted on 04/18/2003 3:16:15 PM PDT by JHavard (You don't know what you don't know)
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To: JHavard; XeniaSt
JHarvad, you still have not answered my question; does it make sense that Jesus was born into a sinful womb when it could be perfect?
47,356 posted on 04/18/2003 5:23:29 PM PDT by tHe AnTiLiB
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To: JHavard; XeniaSt
JHarvard, do not take womb as only in the flesh. The Son of God must have been born into a woman without Original Sin and without sins at all because Jesus would not be born without Original Sin then would he? Just asking.:-)
47,358 posted on 04/18/2003 5:29:37 PM PDT by tHe AnTiLiB
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