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Wow. Thanks for the superficial analysis, Kevin.

Now try the Biblical examples. Like "she had no more children till the day she died."

I assume you are using this rediculous example to show she had no more children until the day she died and, since Scripture doesn't lie, she had other children on the day she died. Stupid isn't it?

Lets use your logic on Matthew 1:25.

RSV but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus.

The same logic proves Joseph "knew her not" until she had born a son.

Try again.

The NAB is an approved Catholic Bible isn't it?

NAB He had no relations with her until she bore a son, (12) and he named him Jesus.

Note: (12) Until she bore a son: the evangelist is concerned to emphasize that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of Jesus. The Greek word translated "until" does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it.

I assume you are using this rediculous example to show she had no more children until the day she died and, since Scripture doesn't lie, she had other children on the day she died. Stupid isn't it?

You know better than that. I use it to show that the use of the word "till" does not have to mean anything about what happens after. It is merely a statement of truth up to the moment of hte "till."

You know this.

The woman no more had children after she died than Mary had to have relations after Jesus was born. "Till" does not have to mean that. It can or it can not.

The Greek word translated "until" does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it.

Yes, that is exactly right, which is why the footnote is there. Thanks for quoting it. The use of "till" does not either imply or exclude. We must look to other evidence, as this is not conclusive.

You can certainly read it the Protestant way if you want to. But it is not cut-and-dried that that is what it means.