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I assume you are using this rediculous example to show she had no more children until the day she died and, since Scripture doesn't lie, she had other children on the day she died. Stupid isn't it?

You know better than that. I use it to show that the use of the word "till" does not have to mean anything about what happens after. It is merely a statement of truth up to the moment of hte "till."

You know this.

The woman no more had children after she died than Mary had to have relations after Jesus was born. "Till" does not have to mean that. It can or it can not.

The Greek word translated "until" does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it.

Yes, that is exactly right, which is why the footnote is there. Thanks for quoting it. The use of "till" does not either imply or exclude. We must look to other evidence, as this is not conclusive.

You can certainly read it the Protestant way if you want to. But it is not cut-and-dried that that is what it means.

The Greek word translated "until" does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it.

Yes, that is exactly right, which is why the footnote is there. Thanks for quoting it. The use of "till" does not either imply or exclude. We must look to other evidence, as this is not conclusive.

You can certainly read it the Protestant way if you want to. But it is not cut-and-dried that that is what it means.

SD

46,920 posted on 04/15/2003 2:28 PM MDT by SoothingDave

I think you need to study the Koine Greek, Dave.

The word translated Until based on the Grammar should say While as in during the pregnancy.

The word means While when used with the indicative verb GSN-1097 (to know)

Acts 17:11 Now the Bereans were of more noble character than the
Thessalonians, for they received the message with great
eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day to see if
what Paul said was true.

chuck <truth@YeshuaHaMashiach>