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To: SoothingDave
I think malakhi might deserve an answer.

(The implication, of course, being that I think otherwise. How thoughtful.)

I believe I gave him the answer last Friday. Thinking he might have missed it, I pointed him to it again today.

At any rate, I would expect that if I neglected to answer him, he would have asked again (certainly without the pompous allegations).

46,874 posted on 04/15/2003 10:16:52 AM PDT by newgeezer (fundamentalist, regarding the Constitution AND the Holy Bible)
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To: newgeezer
But when the time had fully come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law (Galatians 4:4, RSV)

That would appear to be a good catch, if it weren't for the fact that the manuscripts use different words. (As is so often the case, the RSV is flawed.)

So, it's not a question of the RSV, but of which underlying text is used.

In Matt. 11:11, the Lord uses the word "gennetos" which means "born." The word appears 2 times in the NT. Its root "gennao" appears 97 times in the NT, and always relates to birth. A few of those 97 do say Jesus was born -- e.g. of God (1Jn 5:1) -- but, I can't find where any of them says He was "gennao" of woman, or of man.

In Gal. 4:4, it is the word "ginomai" which means "made." The word appears 677 times in the NT and, in addition to "made," is translated most often as "came to pass." Never does it relate to birth.

OK, even if we buy that there are two different words, what does this tell us?

What does it mean that Jesus is "made" of woman? Does that mean He is created? What does it tell us?

You have done nothing other than changing the language from English to Greek. You have not explained what you think "made" means?

SD

46,878 posted on 04/15/2003 10:34:20 AM PDT by SoothingDave
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