No on both counts, Im not learned or smart, and with out God working in me I havent much to say on my own, and I dont remember seeing your post on John and Jude.
Judaism was virtually wiped out in AD 70. Most of it went underground similar to Babylonian captivity. They no longer persecuted the church after AD 70!!
Which would explain why John didnt use the word Jew, or Israel or anything pertaining to them one time in these writings.
John was now a Christian, and spent his later years with the Gentile converts, and Judaism wan no longer an issue for them, so it makes sense to me that this was well after 70AD.
1 John 4:17 Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world.
1 John 2:18 Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby
1 John 2:25 And this is the promise that he hath promised us, even eternal life.
1 John 2:28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming.
If John wrote these after 70AD, its certain he had no idea Jesus had returned, since he talked about the end, 4 times.
Do you believe those who put a 90 or 100AD date on Johns writings, that they had an ax to grind or a hidden agenda in choosing those dates? Why would they come up with these later dates?
JH, there is just as much evidence and MORE INTERNAL evidence for a pre-AD 70 date for all Epistles and Revelation!
And what was their agenda, and why would it carry more weight then anyone one else?
Im thankful that you and Adam and the family are doing so well. Forgive me when I get so involved in a matter that I forget pleasantries. Ginny always ask about Adam. I tell her its not Adam that has the problem any longer, but his mothers husband. :-) JH