But GOD told Joseph to rid the KJV of errors, did HE not?
So why does the Inspired Version still have the 'at liberty' phrases?
But GOD told Joseph to rid the KJV of errors, did HE not?
So why does the Inspired Version still have the ‘at liberty’ phrases?
I wasn’t there for the conversation between Joseph and the one suggesting he translate the Bible, but translate would be a misnomer as all that he received was by revelation.
...and it would also indicate why I’m not the one to be asked the question.
This seems appropriate about now: JST, Matthew 7:12–17. Compare Matthew 7:7–8
Jesus teaches His disciples that the Father gives revelation to all who ask.
12 Say unto them, Ask of God; ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you.
13 For everyone that asketh, receiveth; and he that seeketh, findeth; and unto him that knocketh, it shall be opened.
14 And then said his disciples unto him, They will say unto us, We ourselves are righteous, and need not that any man should teach us. God, we know, heard Moses and some of the prophets; but us he will not hear.
15 And they will say, We have the law for our salvation, and that is sufficient for us.
16 Then Jesus answered, and said unto his disciples, Thus shall ye say unto them,
17 What man among you, having a son, and he shall be standing out, and shall say, Father, open thy house that I may come in and sup with thee, will not say, Come in, my son; for mine is thine, and thine is mine?