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Not sure what you mean here. Please explain further.

Epheisans 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, [even] the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, [so] making peace;

The enmity was abolished here. There is a question as to whether the law was abolished too. Verse 16 mentions only the enmity. There is no mention of ceremonial law as pointed to in your post #3407, only the “law of commandments.” Let’s look at one of the types for evidence if the law was abolished or not.

The first law of commandments that Moses brought down from the mountain was broken without ever being read by the people. Did Moses think that breaking the tables would disannul the law? It is an important feature because history is prophecy and the author is quite familiar with the future. The second set of tables contained a significant change.

The pure law written by God on tables made by God would have been destruction of the people but the second law was written on tables made by Moses.

Deut 9:17-20 And I took the two tables, and cast them out of my two hands, and brake them before your eyes. And I fell down before the LORD, as at the first, forty days and forty nights: I did neither eat bread, nor drink water, because of all your sins which ye sinned, in doing wickedly in the sight of the LORD, to provoke him to anger. For I was afraid of the anger and hot displeasure, wherewith the LORD was wroth against you to destroy you. But the LORD hearkened unto me at that time also. And the LORD was very angry with Aaron to have destroyed him: and I prayed for Aaron also the same time.

Moses, the lawgiver, was an advocate to go before God to plead for the people for mercy and grace. He did not try to excuse them.

There is more to the type than I have mentioned here such as the fact that the children if Israel could not inherit the promise under Moses as the lawgiver. This is prophetic of the inheritance that the church will receive not being under the law.

——>There is no mention of ceremonial law as pointed to in your post #3407, only the “law of commandments.” Let’s look at one of the types for evidence if the law was abolished or not.

There certainly is. I posted the same text as you did (Eph 2:15) in #3416, in response to 3409, to Elsie. However, it seems you missed it, and the meaning as well.

Eph 2:15
Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

The law of commandments CONTAINED IN THE ORDINANCES = the ceremonial/sacrificial law. That does NOT refer to the 10 commandments.

——>The first law of commandments that Moses brought down from the mountain was broken without ever being read by the people...The second set of tables contained a significant change.

First, God initially SPOKE them out loud to all. Then, after Moses broke the first tables of stone, God (preincarnate Jesus), told him to cut another set of two tables of stone and God would write THE SAME COMMANDMENTS as on the first set.

Exodus 34:
1And the LORD said unto Moses, Hew thee two tables of stone like unto the first: and I will write upon these tables the words that were in the first tables, which thou brakest.

Later, Moses read it to the Israelites.

Verse 32: And afterward all the children of Israel came nigh: and he gave them in commandment all that the LORD had spoken with him in mount Sinai.

The first set was EXACTLY the same as the second set (10 commandments). And, they are the ones that were placed in the Ark of the Covenant.

——>The pure law written by God on tables made by God would have been destruction of the people but the second law was written on tables made by Moses.

That statement makes no sense at all. It was the same words, written by the same God. The fact that the second set of stone tables were hewn by Moses makes not one difference.