"which I reminded you - 5 copies, more than any other book had been found being used by the Essenes."
And as said, since Scripture mss were fond along with non-Scripture, but your perverse logic all was Scripture!
"25% of what was found in the caves did not have a liturgical import. For you to use this false comparison to discredit Tobit, is a straw man deflection."
Liturgical import? THAT is what is is a straw man deflection for the principle you attempted to work off of what that since "5 copies of Tobit were found in the Qumran deposit of Sacred Writings used by the Essenes" then that validated Tobit as being Scripture, and thus by arguing that "liturgical import" makes this case then at best you can only argue that Tobit likely had "liturgical import" and not that this proves Tobit was Scripture! Why is this so hard to understand?
Did you know that Luther included apocryphal books in his translation, in a separate section as not being Scripture proper (a judgment many other Catholics had) yet while Luther expressed sentiments toward the book of Tobit as being a book “useful and good for us Christians to read...and whose writings and concerns are extraordinarily Christian.” Why I have Tobit in my Bible program. Thus according to your logic both Luther and myself must consider Tobit to be Scripture!
"and keep in mind -it is at THIS point WHAT WAS DECIDED UPON AS SACRED SCRIPTURE by Church magisterium, for what we like to call the CHRISTIAN Holy Bible… You have to have a plausible answer then, why the Holy Spirit would allow this Church error of canonicty to exist for over 1000 years. I am curious how you spin that."
"Plausible answer?!" Once again you are engaging in the logical fallacy of begging the question. What Rome decides simply does not translate into what the Holy Spirit declares as Truth, as if what the RC church decides settles a matter. Distinctive Catholic teachings themselves are not manifest in the only wholly inspired substantive authoritative record of what the NT church believed (which is Scripture, in particular Acts through Revelation, which best shows how the NT church understood the gospels).
The novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility as per Rome is itself self-proclaimed. For Rome has presumed to infallibly declare she is and will be perpetually infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.
And as for the premise that the Holy Spirit allowed this Church error of canonicty to exist for over 1000 years, if that was true then you need to ask why the same Catholic church did not definitively settle the matter of the canon until about 1500 years after the last book was penned. For as shown here multiple times (and in tomes) before, the FACT is that scholarly disagreements over the canonicity (proper) of certain books continued down through the centuries and right into Trent, until it provided the first "infallible," indisputable canon after the death of Luther. Read it.
Thus Luther was no maverick but had substantial RC support for his non-binding personal view on the canon. Thus his views were not made an issue in his excommunication. Meanwhile you can argue with some of your cousins who effectively view Rome removed books, since the canon of the EOs (if not formally defined) and Ethiopian Orthodox Tewahdo Church are slightly larger. How much is irrelevant.
Once again your arguments are an embarrassing argument against being a RC.
As I typed above...
“You have to have a plausible answer then, why the Holy Spirit would allow this Church error of canonicty to exist for over 1000 years.”
The Holy Spirit indewells saved born again believers not .org’s.
Orthodox Judaism has misinterpreted Scripture for 2400 years and counting.
It is called free will, you might remember the story of Adam and Eve.