Where does the bolded part (I assume you’d meant to bold it) say that Mary is the equal of the word of God?
Let's back up, shall we? I said:
Apparently, ebb tide jumped to the wrong conclusion (not unusual for ET), took what I said out of context and then ran with it to then accuse me of lying about Mary being "equal to the word of God". It should have been plain to see that the "she" I was referring to - and which the Catechism confirms - is Catholicism and "her" declared Traditions are equal to sacred Scripture, not Mary. The Catechism DOES state on the chapter "The Relationship Between Tradition and Sacred Scripture", that As a result the Church, to whom the transmission and interpretation of Revelation is entrusted, "does not derive her certainty about all revealed truths from the holy Scriptures alone. Both Scripture and Tradition must be accepted and honoured with equal sentiments of devotion and reverence." This was what I was talking about. In Catholicism, specifically the Immaculate Conception, having a Scriptural basis for the doctrine doesn't matter since Catholicism has declared it to be true and to be accepted de fide - held as an obligatory article of faith. Hopefully that clears up the confusion.