Greek The Koine Greek of 1 Thessalonians 4:17 uses the verb form ἁρπαγησόμεθα (harpagēsometha), which means "we shall be caught up" or "taken away". The dictionary form of this Greek verb is harpazō (ἁρπάζω).[14] This use is also seen in such texts as Acts 8:39, 2 Corinthians 12:2–4, and Revelation 12:5.
Latin The Latin Vulgate translates the Greek ἁρπαγησόμεθα as rapiemur[15] meaning "we are caught up" or "we are taken away" from the Latin verb rapio meaning "to catch up" or "take away".[16] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rapture
English, despite being in origins a Germanic language, took about 60% of its vocabulary from Latin or “modern north-western Latin” i.e. French.
Note that the fact that English borrowed this word has no relevance on the historicity of the 19th century philosophy of the pre-trib rapture.
The word was used in English and Latin long prior. However, it was understood differently, so we need to examine what the church fathers wrote regarding this rapio or raptus: a) what is it, b) when does it occur and c) is it secret or visible.
Church fathers routinely associated the rapture with the physical resurrection of believers following the tribulation, and many see a close connection between the rapture and other eschatological events, such as the final judgment.
Do not impose your modern understanding of rapture on the church fathers: they believed that 1 Thessalonians 4 refers to a rapture in which living Christians will meet Christ in the sky and be transformed. They saw this visible event as closely associated with at least the end of the tribulation and the defeat of the Antichrist, and often the final judgment itself.
Dispensational ideas like a “secret” rapture and significant gap in time between the rapture and final judgment are not expressed by the church fathers. If we wish to say that the church fathers “believed in the rapture,” we must be very careful to specify that we are using rapture in the traditional sense—a taking up, a carrying off—not the dispensational sense.
I would also advise against looking at parallels in words especially in Modern English.
English borrowed and borrows heavily from other languages, but at specific stages in those languages’ evolution. So many times when English uses a “French” word for instance, it uses the Middle French term while French itself evolved to modern French.
French itself is a mix of Latin + Gaulish + Frankenisch (the Germanic language the Franks spoke) -> so you have anomalies in French where it took one word from Latin and uses that as a word while the other Romance languages (Castilian, Portuguese, Catalan, Sardinian, Sicilian, Neapolitan, Italian, Rhaeto-Romance, Romanian etc.) took the standard Latin word.
English is like a bastard child of Gallo-French and Saxon merged with Norse, Classical Latin and others. And it’s “mother” - French - itself is a bastard child of Latin + Gaulish + Frankenisch. :)