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To: af_vet_1981
Four other translations besides the Authorized Version have it the same: "in the temple" ..., so the argument that the KJV is a mistranslation of the Greek is unpersuasive.

This is the type of thing I mean as trying to gain a foothold when you lost the war. I did not argue the KJV is a mistranslation, but made a distinction btwn the temple itself, as meaning the holy place of prayer and Solomon's porch in the "the Temple's Outer Court" (of the Gentiles) though that is also included in the phrase "in the Temple." (Mark 11:15)

When the Jews cried out, "Men of Israel, help: This is the man, that teacheth all men every where against the people, and the law, and this place: and further brought Greeks also into the temple, and hath polluted this holy place" (Acts 21:28; cf. Luke 1:9) they were not protesting a Gentile being in the Court of the Gentiles, but bring him "into the temple."

To the east of the court was Solomon's Porch, and to the north, the soreg, the "middle wall of separation",[cf. Ephesians 2:14] a stone wall separating the public area from the inner sanctuary where only Jews could enter, described as being 3 cubits high by Josephus (Wars 5.5.2 [3b] 6.2.4).

The point which you missed in your quest for a jot was that Christ is not at all described as going into the inner sanctuary to taker part in worship, but to teach in Solomon's Porch which this opportunity provided Him.

Postulating what the Messiah did because one did something two thousand years later is an example/fallacy of cultural bias. There is no evidence in the scripture that the Feast of the Dedication at the Holy Temple was a cultural celebration. There is no other place in scripture that explains the Feast of the Dedication except Second Maccabees and the Gospel of John, which every Christian must accept as inspired by the Holy Spirit, explicitly mentioned the Feast of the Dedication (Re-dedication) of the Holy Temple in the context of the presence of the Messiah. One might consider this very significant and not filler.

This is supposed to be an argument?! Cultural bias? Because the Dedication at the Holy Temple was not a cultural celebration? Yes, it certainly was a cultural celebration just as the Catholic feasts of St. Anthony etc. I have gone to are, for (surprise) religion usually goes together with culture. And ministering the Word at such or even affirmatively recognizing it simply does not translate into making the record of its institution Scripture. Thus the weight of evidence as shown is that before the church began leadership did not class it as Scripture.

You were given too many chances, and now you really will be ignored, but will give your new-found comrade another chance.

168 posted on 10/16/2019 6:58:49 PM PDT by daniel1212 ( Trust the risen Lord Jesus to save you as a damned and destitute sinner + be baptized + follow Him)
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To: daniel1212
  1. The scripture reads "Jesus walked in the temple" so the contention that And He was not in the Temple itself, is false.
  2. The Feast of the Dedication was a holy celebration, called out in the scriptures. Trying to relegate it to a cultural celebration not in the scriptures is false.

169 posted on 10/16/2019 7:19:56 PM PDT by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began)
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To: daniel1212
Supplemental for those who strain at a semantical gnat while swallowing a camel ("into" as temple proper vs. in Herod's temple complex, a distinction manifest in Scripture texts forbidding Gentiles from entering into the temple).

Solomon's Temple: - https://www.shannonmullins.com/equipped-for-the-work-5-2-2/

Herod's temple: https://www.pinterest.com/pin/429812358166982719/?nic=1

This temple area was called the ' Court of the Gentiles'; it was not part of the temple proper, and therefore not sacred soil, consequently any one might enter it. (John Chisholm Lambert: A Dictionary of Christ and the Gospels: Labour-Zion, with appendix and indexes, p. 709

We let some strangers in our house - on the porch - others (like family) into the house.

Regardless of "in" vs. "into" the point remains that affirming something testified to by a source does not itself make the latter Scripture (whether it be prophecy or holy celebrations), and that the weight of evidence testifies to the Deuteros not being part of the most authoritative body of inspired texts in the 1st century - the Palestinian canon which Catholic sources affirm corresponds to the Prot OT canon - of which the Lord only quoted from. Case closed.

Other news: The American grandson of an indigenous ex-shaman was appalled when he saw a video of an Amazonian religious ceremony that took place in the Vatican this week. ..- https://www.lifesitenews.com/news/ex-shamans-grandson-on-vatican-pagan-ritual-i...couldnt-believe-my-eyes

170 posted on 10/17/2019 4:28:38 AM PDT by daniel1212 ( Trust the risen Lord Jesus to save you as a damned and destitute sinner + be baptized + follow Him)
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