Any offering made for sin needed not wait for the appointed “yearly” day as multiple stories from the OT attest; nevertheless Caiphas that year was said in the new Testament to have prophesied that “one man was to die for the sins of the people!”
Christ was to die for the sins of the people as per the prophecy as related from the New Testament. So he was both sin and paschal offering. The spilling of his blood not only provided protection from everlasting death(reference the death Angel over Egypt) but also as he was sinless, and without blemish, he was the final sin sacrifice whose shed bloodt not only covered our sins to make us acceptable before God, but wiped them out completely, sending them into “the depths of the sea” Micah 7:19
Sounds like a mistranslation, linguistic interpretation (and far-east and pagan adaptation) all rolled into one. Sorry.