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To: daniel1212; Cronos; imardmd1; dangus
It does get frustrating when we have to repeat these points so many times here, right? It makes me wonder about a few things:

I doubt this will be the last time this propaganda is parroted on these threads, so your excellent research will be kept on hand.

85 posted on 03/28/2018 9:57:06 PM PDT by boatbums (The Law is a storm which wrecks your hopes of self-salvation, but washes you upon the Rock of Ages.)
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To: boatbums

First, thanks for calling the deuterocanonicals. One great source of confusion among many Protestants comes from several Church Fathers denouncing “apocrypha,” by which they meant an entirely different set of books: writings which were either supposedly hidden from all but initiated Christians, or which contained hidden meanings. Hence, apocrypha means, “hidden writings.” Apply the term to the deuterocanonicals makes no sense.

>> Do they imagine the Jewish people - unto whom Paul said were given the “Oracles of God” - would not have recognized and received the Apocryphal/Deuterocanonicals had they truly been given by God? <<

They did. They were included in the canon of the Dead Sea Scrolls, and the canon of the Septuagint. But whereas the Jews of Jesus’ time regarded the Second Temple as divinely instituted, and the Maccabean dynasty as divinely ordained, later Jews disputed these notions in light of the destruction of the Temple and the corruption of the Hasmoneans. (An odd argument, since the First Temple was destroyed and the Solomonic dynasty corrupted.) Thus, the books which (1) pointed to the Resurrection, (2) pointed to an imminent Messiah, and (3) legitimized the 2nd Temple and the Maccabean dynasty were denigrated.

It’s not so cut-and-dry as to say that the Jews REMOVED the deuterocanonicals from the canon; at the time of Jesus, there was great disagreement among Jews as to which books were in the canon. IIRC, the Samaritans accepted only the Torah but rejected the Prophets; the Saduccees accepted the Torah and the Prophets (Nevi’im), but rejected the Scrools; and the Pharisees accepted the Torah and the Prophets and the Scrolls (Ketuvim), but weren’t unanimous about the content of the Scrolls. By the way, the names of these three groups of books may be misleading: the book of Psalms is among the Prophets, for instance, whereas the Book of Daniel is among the Scrolls.

>> Why didn’t Paul, Peter, John, James, etc. - or Jesus for that matter - ever speak of these books as the word of God like they did most of the others? <<

They cite only 22 of 39 Protestant-canon books, but 5 out of 7 deuterocanonicals. In general, they rarely cite the Books of the Scrolls, among which the deuterocanonicals had been counted.

>> Do they defend these books as Divine because they really believe they are or is it because the Council Of Trent dogmatically declared them as so and they MUST stick by the Council or admit they were in error? <<

Ask the 15 centuries of Christians who regarded them as sacred scripture BEFORE the Council of Trent, or the non-Roman, non-Protestant churches who regard them as sacred scripture.

>> Why does it appear that Trent only dogmatically defined those books to reject the Reformers’ points about them not being from God? <<

Trent was the first infallible, ecumenical council to define the contents of the bible at all. Ecumenical councils rule infallibly only when a doctrine has been challenged; saying a council invented a doctrine is like saying that Heller vs. DC invented the 2nd amendment. There were, however, other synods (councils) which defined the contents of the bible. They were not all identical*, but they all included the deuterocanonicals.

(*1. Prior to Trent, some councils included III Ezra, a.k.a. Greek Ezra. The Council defined the canon as those books essential to define Revealed Doctrine. But Greek Ezra included virtually no unique doctrine. 2. Some ancient sources include the Letter of Jeremiah, but this is not contrary to the Trent canon; the Letter of Jeremiah is part of the Book of Baruch. 3. IV Ezra has been published in many Christian bibles, and often included in lists of books of the bible prior to the Council of Trent; none of these lists represented the work product of a synod, nor claimed to establish a canon.)

>> When examined closely, they really don’t help support Catholic doctrines that were not already found in the undisputed books and which the Reformers also held to. <<

Yes, Luther attacked the Deuterocanonicals (among which he listed 7 New Testament books, including Revelation, Hebrew, 2 Peter, 2 and 3 John and James) as being non-biblical since they had been used to teach him of Catholic doctrine he rejected. In the Council of Trent’s response to Luther, however, the Council provided excellent support for these doctrines. Some, however, rely on syllogism or references which are ambiguous when divorced from a context which includes the deuterocanonicals.


86 posted on 03/28/2018 10:39:13 PM PDT by dangus (.)
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To: boatbums; daniel1212; Cronos; imardmd1; dangus
To your points, bb:

91 posted on 03/29/2018 12:41:28 AM PDT by Cronos (Obama's dislike of Assad is not based on his brutality but that he isn't a jihadi Moslem)
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To: boatbums; imardmd1; dangus; Cronos
I doubt this will be the last time this propaganda is parroted on these threads, so your excellent research will be kept on hand.

Its not like such has not been posted numerous times here, and i expect some goal-post moving in response, for the real issue is the basis for assurance that something is from God. For Catholics, who are taught than one cannot discover the contents of Scripture the contents of revelation except by being told by people who have received it from God, and that one "cannot believe in the Bible nor find in it the object of his faith until he has previously made an act of faith in the intermediary authorities," (Catholic Encyclopedia>Tradition and Living Magisterium) then the basis for their assurance of what is from God is to rest upon the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility as per Rome (and basically in primary cults).

Which presumes that an assuredly (if conditionally) infallible magisterium is essential for determination and assurance of Truth (including writings and men being of God) and to fulfill promises of Divine presence, providence of Truth, and preservation of faith, and authority. (Jn. 14:16,26; 15:26; 16:13; Mt. 16:18; Lk. 10:16

And that being the historical instruments and stewards of Divine revelation (oral and written) means that Rome is that assuredly infallible magisterium. Thus any who knowingly dissent from the latter must be in rebellion to God.

Thus the canon is whatever Rome says it is, while scholarly debate can continue until she infallibility settles the issue for them. If not for us or even the EOs, whose canon is slightly larger (who could cry, "Rome removed books."

95 posted on 03/29/2018 8:14:15 AM PDT by daniel1212 (Trust the risen Lord Jesus to save you as a damned and destitute sinner + be baptized + follow Him)
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