> What do you think He meant in Leviticus (the third book of Moses) about blood making atonement? Why did he require it? Do you just ignore that part?
That is not how it works. You do not take the Written Torah and give subjective interpretations. The Oral Torah explains how to repent. I cited the actual and practical Torah Law of repentance. I will add that it is permitted for a Gentile to offer sacrifices, meaning to build an altar and offer upon it a kosher animal or bird which he owns as a sacrifice to G-d in any place and at any time. But it is highly recommended that Gentiles in our days not act on the permission from G-d to sacrifice.
Oh?
Why not?
And just WHO is doing this 'recommending'?
How does it work, then, is the "Oral" Torah written down? Aren't you making man's interpretation of God's word equal to the written Divine revelation? It isn't subjective interpretation to read what God plainly said and believe it.
And WHY would a Gentile ever need to offer a sacrifice anyway? You said they just had to be sorry and promise to do better next time and the slate is clean. There is NO getting around the clear command of God for a blood atonement for sin. It was done every year on the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur). You don't have atonement for sin if there is no blood sacrifice.