None of the arguments advanced here are conclusive; there is no argument to the contrary that is conclusive either.
So what? Do you not believe Jesus is Lord because He was married? Or believe that He is Lord because He was not married?
The question is not an issue which is directly resolved by either the scripture or by other evidence--we do not know.
Frankly, the idea that He was a 36 year old Jewish man cuts a lot of ice on this issue--it would have been very unusual if He had not been married. He was a man in all respects says the gospel; He would have been an unusual Jew of his time if He had not had a wife. And perhaps children also.
But He was an unusual man in other respect so maybe He was unusual in this regard also.
The question is irrelevant. We don't know the answer. If God thought the answer was important to our belief, He would have told us.
Yet Paul wrote...
NIV
1 Corinthians 7:1-11
1 Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.” 2 But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual relations with his own wife, and each woman with her own husband. 3 The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. 4 The wife does not have authority over her own body but yields it to her husband. In the same way, the husband does not have authority over his own body but yields it to his wife. 5 Do not deprive each other except perhaps by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control. 6 I say this as a concession, not as a command. 7 I wish that all of you were as I am. But each of you has your own gift from God; one has this gift, another has that.
It's too bad that a LARGE Christian religious group teaches that Joseph and Mary had NO sexual relations with one another.