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To: impactplayer
Matt 5:17 Matthew 5:17 Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them, but to fulfill them.

Jesus own words says He did NOT come to Abolish the Law. How much plainer does He have to make it?

20 posted on 06/27/2017 7:41:53 PM PDT by BipolarBob (Rehab is for quitters.)
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To: BipolarBob
Jesus own words says He did NOT come to Abolish the Law. How much plainer does He have to make it?

Paul, writing according to The Holy Spirit made very plain what Jesus did. He did not come to abolish the Law without first completely satisfying God's requirement that a human fulfill the Law. At the point of Mt. %:17, He was still in the process of doing that. But the end of it was that He totally satisfied the First Covenant by fulfilling it in every respect down to the smallest yodh (iota in Greek, smallest Hebrew consonant) and chireq (keraia in Greek, dot/tittle in English, smallest Hebrew vowel point). Jesus took it away, nailing it to His Cross. By His substitutionary death, resurrection, ascension, and reconciliation He completely replaced it by establishing the Second Covenant, which is the New Testament in His Blood, the Covenant of Grace which is the forgiveness of sins by faith in His Shed Blood!

"Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
  By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Heb. 10:9-10 AV).

My FRiend, if you are clinging to the Law--any part of it--as your road to salvation, you will die in your sins and go to Hell, according to Scripture:

"For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written,
Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. 
But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for,
The just shall live by faith. 
And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them" (Gal. 3:10-12 AV).

I don't think you have read the text of the article here posted, which covers all your arguments, and dismisses them.

Up to the giving of the Mosaic Covenant, neither Gentiles nor Jews were subject to the Law and its penalties. It was not written down, ever, from Adam until Moses until God wrote it in stone on the Mount. There were no Sabbaths until the Law was given on Sinai.

Your translation of Mt. 5:17 ("them" is not in the Greek, "abolish" is not the same as "to destroy or dissolve") is imperfect; and your interpretation above ignores the context, and is deeply flawed by eisegesis, reading into it what is not meant.

61 posted on 06/27/2017 9:20:40 PM PDT by imardmd1 (Fiat Lux)
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