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To: af_vet_1981
I thought we were discussing the phrase “And I will put enmity between the and the woman” so I don’t see the plural “the women” anywhere in there. Was someone trying to extrapolate “the woman” into another meaning ?

Are you reading what i wrote? Referring to my prior statement that In the Hebrew there is no “the” in “enmity between you and the woman,” i said that the word for "the" before "the women" was not shown in the KJV text i had with Strong's numbers [E-sword], but as a result of your query i have found it."

But that as also said the word for "the" can contextually refer to "the women" in the plural, as in Gen. 14:16, and the enmity in Gn. 3:15 (said to denote the “blood-feud”) is between the devil and the woman Eve as representing all women and her offspring in general, whom the devil seeks to seduce [and greatly defile] and murder since they are basically made in the image of God. Yet "her seed" versus "his seed" can refer to the Godly seed.

But that "her seed" principally refers to the most important seed (which is used singular and plural) of Eve and of the women, Christ, is what is fulfilled prophetically.

It seems to me that if you are going to restrict the enmity of the devil to only being women, then we have a murderous devil that does not have enmity against mankind, or at least the Godly seed, or that it is women in particular that is his object of animosity.

But if we restrict the enmity of the devil to only being one women, and make that to be Mary, then Eve is no longer in the picture as an object of enmity, nor women in general, nor her offspring, but only Mary and her offspring, giving the devil thousand of years of no enmity towards man.

Take your pick.

523 posted on 01/12/2017 4:55:16 PM PST by daniel1212 ( Turn to the Lord Jesus as a damned and destitute sinner+ trust Him to save you, then follow Him!)
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To: daniel1212
Are you reading what i wrote? Referring to my prior statement that In the Hebrew there is no “the” in “enmity between you and the woman,” i said that the word for "the" before "the women" was not shown in the KJV text i had with Strong's numbers [E-sword], but as a result of your query i have found it."

Okay, glad to help.

But that as also said the word for "the" can contextually refer to "the women" in the plural, as in Gen. 14:16, ...

Sure, if by context we see the definite article is actually joined to the plural form, as in this case. The Hebrew definite article is used with singular or plural nouns. In this case, the word is in the plural so הַנָּשִׁים means "the women" which uses the same root (אִשָּׁה) from הָאִשָּׁה is "the woman."
536 posted on 01/12/2017 8:09:48 PM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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