[maro]

As I recall, the Hebrew word in the original does not necessarily imply virginity.

[CondorFlight]

“As I recall, the Hebrew word in the original does not necessarily imply virginity.”

Actually, that’s exactly what it does “imply”.

The Greek Septuagint (made before Christ) translates the word as “parthenos” (as in “parthenon”), which means simply “virgin”.

[bgill]

It was my understanding it meant a woman who had yet to birth a child. Prior to Jesus’ birth, Mary was almáh.

[the_daug]

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. H5959 עַלְמָה ‛almâh al-maw' Feminine of H5958; a lass (as veiled or private): - damsel, maid, virgin. Total KJV occurrences: 7 Only virgin can be considered as a sign.

[Bethaneidh]

“and this shall be a sign unto you...” It isn’t a sign of any kind if a “young woman” conceives. That happens every few seconds.

[TBP]

Jesus and his family weren’t Hebrew speakers. They spoke Aramaic.

[wbarmy]

It can mean both young girl or virgin, but the Bible translates in the book of Matthew and says that verse is prophesying a virgin.

[circlecity]

"As I recall, the Hebrew word in the original does not necessarily imply virginity."

But in context of the passage it clearly means virgin. Also, the 70 Jewish scholars who translated the Hebrew OT into Greek to create the Septuagint specifically chose the Greek word for virgin.