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To: angryoldfatman

The Islamic call to prayer? Wouldn’t that be a matter of Arabic grammar? English grammar is not such that it morphs the term “God” but neither would it morph many other proper nouns.


37 posted on 06/29/2016 6:49:25 AM PDT by HiTech RedNeck (Embrace the Lion of Judah and He will roar for you and teach you to roar too. See my page.)
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To: HiTech RedNeck

Your first post on the subject we’re discussing:

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Not the “Allah” of Mohammed, certainly. We aren’t addressing the technicality that the term “Allah” was used, prior to Mohammed, in Arabic translations of the Christian bible. Mohammed stole the term, just like the term “gay” and even “liberal” has been stolen today by respective language thieves.
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You stated that the word “Allah” is used in the Arabic translations of the Christian Bible, prior to Mohammed and Islam.
You thus imply that the Arabic word for “God” or “Lord” is “Allah”.

I told you that the Islamic call to prayer uses a word that is not “Allah” to mean “god” or “God”. Here it is, transliterated:

Ashhadu an la ilaha ill Allah

English translation: I testify that there is no god but Allah.

Obviously, the line is not “there is no Allah but Allah”.

“Allah” is a proper noun, not a common noun.

This seems to be counter to your implication.

Where is “Allah” mentioned in the Arabic translations of the Bible? Do you have a link you can post, besides someone else I’ve never met saying “Allah is in the Bible”? A link to BibleGateway or other online Bible in such a translation?


46 posted on 06/29/2016 7:16:19 AM PDT by angryoldfatman
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