If Joseph didn't intend on having sex with Mary, if they were in a mutually agreed upon sexless marriage arrangement, then why did he intend to divorce her when she turns up pregnant?
Canon ain't Scripture. Nowhere does God ever refer to a *Josephite* marriage. That's a complete fabrication by the Catholic church to bolster their arguments in favor of Mary remaining a virgin, which Scripture tells us didn't happen.
Uh, I dunno, maybe because they reached their agreement AFTER her pregnancy was discovered?
Ya think that might be a possibility? Yeah no don't bother answering I'm sure it will be something like, "That can't be because we know the perpetual virginity is a lie". "How do we know that?" "Because Scripture doesn't support it". "How do we know that?" "Because the perpetual virginjty is a lie".
Spare me the circularity. Please.