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To: ealgeone
You ignored the tenses and moods of the verbs.

In your opinion. Every single non-Catholic has ignored the citations from the book of Deuteronomy that strictly prohibits Joseph from a conjugal relationship as well as the Example set by David in 2 Samuel.

Can you cite anything from the Talmud that reverses this: In the The Babylonian Talmud: (Neusner vol 11 pg 123) It states that a man can not enter into a marriage contract with a woman who has been made pregnant by a former husband. If he does, he is required to give her a bill of divorce, and not remarry her.

113 posted on 04/15/2016 5:54:19 PM PDT by verga (Power corrupts, absolute power corrupts absolutely.)
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To: verga; ealgeone; Elsie

So Mary is the Wife of God as well as the Mother of God?

I think the OT prohibits that sort of behavior, and I’m sure the Talmudic scholars would frown upon it as well.


115 posted on 04/15/2016 5:59:26 PM PDT by kosciusko51
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To: verga

Please provide chapter and verse for what you are citing.


118 posted on 04/15/2016 6:05:41 PM PDT by ealgeone
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To: verga

Verga! You just argued that God caused Mary the Mother of Jesus to violate her marriage contract! She was already betrothed to Joseph when God placed Jesus in her womb! Your premise starts with this betrothal is the same as being married! Please, FRiend, look at what you are mistakenly arguing.


119 posted on 04/15/2016 6:10:31 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Democrats bait then switch; their fishy voters buy it every time.)
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To: verga
Let's just stick with OT Law as that is an agreed upon source for all.

1“When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out from his house, 2and she leaves his house and goes and becomes another man’s wife, 3and if the latter husband turns against her and writes her a certificate of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her to be his wife, 4then her former husband who sent her away is not allowed to take her again to be his wife, since she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the LORD, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the LORD your God gives you as an inheritance. Deut 24:1-4 NASB

Let's understand what's happening here.

Husband A marries then divorces wife. v 1

Husband B marries her. v2

Husband B divorces her or he dies. v3

Husband A is not allowed to remarry her again. v4

v4 only comes into play if v1-3 have happened.

This is not what's happening in Matthew or Luke as Mary is only married to Joseph. No one else.

Unless in some strange way you are saying Mary is married to God or the Holy Spirit.

If that's what you're asserting, then we're not even in the same ballpark and you've gone way beyond eisegesis.

123 posted on 04/15/2016 6:27:36 PM PDT by ealgeone
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