I see your one reference and give you a dozen. They do not all agree. Some say yeah, other say nay.
http://biblehub.com/commentaries/matthew/1-25.htm
The word ‘till’ (untill) does not mean NEVER DID. It means UNTILL.
(Young's Literal Translation) 2 Samuel 6:23 As to Michal daughter of Saul, she had no child till the day of her death.
If I say, "I'm going to abstain from chocolate until Lent is over.", does this mean I will have chocolate after lent? It means I could without breaking my word, but it does not mean that I will.
The word until makes a claim up unto a certain point. That is perfectly clear. The word until does not necessarily make a point about after a certain point. Using "modifiers" to explain "time disparity" in the original language is a better argument than using English and common sense.
But the point is that using the word "until" is not a slam dunk to debunk the ever virgin status of Mary.
And why did Joseph take her as his wife even when he knew that her babe was not his? So God could pull a fast one on the watching community, that her babe would not be identified as a bastard for lack of a husband, or that her babe was not of fornication with Joseph before the year-long pre-nuptial betrothal had passed according to the custom of insuring that she was a virgin at the formal consummation?
No. God does not play lying games.
Joseph married Mary in order that Jesus could be counted as David's legitimate royal heir, though Joseph refrained while that time of proof of her virginity right up to the babes birth passed, and all could witness thereto.
You'd better think out what all this means, particularly in view of the cultural context.
Why are you parsing scripture trying to make the entire sentence means what one word in the sentence does without its modifiers?
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I see the shotgun/claymore effect has taken place on this thread finally. It is now impossible to extract context or true meaning out of anything said.
My responses are concluded here.
I give you the last word.
And why did Joseph take her as his wife even when he knew that her babe was not his? So God could pull a fast one on the watching community, that her babe would not be identified as a bastard for lack of a husband, or that her babe was not of fornication with Joseph before the year-long pre-nuptial betrothal had passed according to the custom of insuring that she was a virgin at the formal consummation?
No. God does not play lying games.
Joseph married Mary in order that Jesus could be counted as David's legitimate royal heir, though Joseph refrained while that time of proof of her virginity right up to the babes birth passed, and all could witness thereto.
You'd better think out what all this means, particularly in view of the cultural context.
Probably.
Why 'abstain' from something that you are not likely to do in the first place?
"I'm going to abstain from chocolate FOREVER!" says another thing.
Although...
"I'm going to abstain from mountain oysters until Lent is over.", does NOT mean that I've EVER had them or intend to after Lent!
Probably.
Why 'abstain' from something that you are not likely to do in the first place?
"I'm going to abstain from chocolate FOREVER!" says another thing.
Although...
"I'm going to abstain from mountain oysters until Lent is over.", does NOT mean that I've EVER had them or intend to after Lent!
Lent
Yet another man made ‘tradition’ not found in the bible.