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To: The Cuban
The Scripture that didn’t exist in AD 30 is supreme because it didn’t exist in AD30? you continue to ignore, as needed, that Scripture - which did exist in 30AD - alone was manifestly the supreme authority on what is of God, the supreme standard for faith and obedience, and providing for additional conflative complimentary writings being recognized as such, as was the case in the past, and thus providing for a canon.

Where in the Old Testament is there Protestantism?

Where is Catholicism? Protestantism is basically supported in principle, while Catholicism is not. As told you, even laity could assuredly discern both men and writings as being of God, even without an infallible magisterium, and even in dissent from the historical magisterium, which is how the church began, with laity discerning that John the baptizer was a prophet indeed, and that Jesus was the Christ, contrary to the judgment of those who sat in the seat of Moses. (Mk. 11:27-3; cf. Mt. 23:2) Who were magisterially the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)

But instead the common people followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved them Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)

And the veracity of Truth claims being dependent upon the weight of scriptural substantiation, and even in dissent from the claimed historical magisterium, is the most fundamental distinctive of the Reformation, having clear Scriptural support, while the fundamental distinctive of Rome, that of the veracity of her claims being based upon the premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility is unseen and unnecessary in Scripture. Almighty God both provided His word and preserved faith without one, and often by raising up men from without the formal magisterium (dissent from which was a capital crime: Dt. 17:8-13), and thus the church did not begin upon those who sat in the seat of Moses, as akin to Rome, but upon dissenters, "the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the chief cornerstone." (Eph. 2:20) Thanks be to God.

In addition are the multiple beliefs of Catholicism that are not of Scripture, more critically than the declension of true Protestant evangelical churches.

1,791 posted on 01/10/2016 11:17:21 AM PST by daniel1212 ( Turn to the Lord Jesus as a damned and destitute sinner+ trust Him to save you, then follow Him!)
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To: daniel1212; Syncro; The Cuban; ealgeone; Iscool; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; BlueDragon; boatbums; ...

And I’m STILL waiting for someone to answer whether the Church gives Scripture it’s authority or whether Scripture gives the Church its authority and which one is authoritative over the other.


1,793 posted on 01/10/2016 11:20:54 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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