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Yet I showed you an Apostle saying he forgave someone in 2 Cor 2:10.<>Did Paul HIMSELF hear that confession?? no he agreed with the churches decision

One more time.. your own church says there were not one on one confessions

The Catechism of the Catholic Church admits that private confession first came on the scene in the seventh century:

“Over the centuries the concrete form in which the Church has exercised this power received from the Lord has varied considerably. During the first centuries the reconciliation of Christians who had committed particularly grave sins after their Baptism (for example, idolatry, murder, or adultery) was tied to a very rigorous discipline, according to which penitents had to do public penance for their sins, often for years, before receiving reconciliation. To this ‘order of penitents’ (which concerned only certain grave sins), one was only rarely admitted and in certain regions only once in a lifetime. During the seventh century Irish missionaries, inspired by the Eastern monastic tradition, took to continental Europe the ‘private’ practice of penance, which does not require public and prolonged completion of penitential works before reconciliation with the Church. From that time on, the sacrament has been performed in secret between penitent and priest. This new practice envisioned the possibility of repetition and so opened the way to a regular frequenting of this sacrament. It allowed the forgiveness of grave sins and venial sins to be integrated into one sacramental celebration. In its main lines this is the form of penance that the Church has practiced down to our day” (Catechism of the Catholic Church, paragraph 1447).

“Did Paul HIMSELF hear that confession??”

Does John 20:19-23 possibly mean anything other than confession? No. It can’t.

“One more time.. your own church says there were not one on one confessions”

No, the Church has never said that.

“The Catechism of the Catholic Church admits that private confession first came on the scene in the seventh century”

No. The CCC is clearly discussing “the ‘private’ practice of penance, which does not require public and prolonged completion of penitential works before reconciliation with the Church.” Confession comes BEFORE Penance. This is why two sentences earlier it says (plain as day!), “according to which penitents had to do public penance for their sins, often for years, before receiving reconciliation.” The simple fact is that confession was usually in private, while penance could very well be public (By the way, technically it still is: Confession is private, while penance is performed - generally - publicly). Reconciliation has parts. Do you even know what those parts are? You apparently are confusing one with another.

Also, in your post there you are essentially saying, “See, I said it only came about in 1214 [sic] but really it was in the ‘seventh century’.” Either way you’re still wrong.