I am not ignoring it. I am disagreeing with your analysis and giving you an alternate reason why she did not sin.
I will defer to someone that has more knowledge.
Why would God allow His son be born to a woman that had the stain of original sin or actual sin? Reason says he wouldn’t.
Just like He spared her of the pain of child birth, he granted her a special status of not having sin, as she was humbly obedient to the God.
You are ignoring the Word in favor of catholic teaching.
Yet ANOTHER crazy Roman teaching??
The Book says...
Gemesis 3:16
To the woman also he said: I will multiply thy sorrows, and thy conceptions: in sorrow shalt thou bring forth children*, and thou shalt be under thy husband's power, and he shall have dominion over thee.
Rome addition:
Because Jesus was a man tempted in every way just as we are and yet was without sin.
*Reason* doesn't demand that Mary be sinless. *Reason* could just as well conclude that Mary needed to be a normal sinful human being who have other children so the Jesus being raised in a normal everyday big family, by imperfect parents, would be tempted in every way just as we are, yet without sin.
How could he sympathize with our weaknesses if He never experienced them?
The whole theology of Mary being sinless is just wishful thinking on Catholic's part and has ZERO support from Scripture, where Scripture tells us that Mary called God her Savior, and it tells us that ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.
What a bunch of nonsense. There's not one Scriptural fact that indicate4s that Mary did not experience normal pain during childbirth.