Don’t you think that if the Holy Spirit thought that *mother of God* was a better, more accurate term that would clear up confusion, that He would have used it?
I guess I’ve gotten carried away and forgotten what Zuriel pointed out, that Peter was the original subject of this thread. (Sorry, NYer)
So I will give my take on your questions, then defer conversations about Mary to another thread.
First, I do not presume to try to understand what the Holy Spirit thought.
As to the phrase “mother of Jesus,” it appears only three times in the Bible, twice in Luke 2, and once in Acts 1.
If you look at Luke 2, you will see that, while Mary in not called the mother of God, neither is Jesus called God. He is identified as Jesus throughout the chapter.
In Acts 1, Mary is identified as the mother of Jesus to distinguish her from the other women. I suppose she could have been called the mother of God, but the Holy Spirit did not choose to inspire Luke to use that term. I do not know why.
This will be my last post about Mary on this thread.
Good idea...