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To: Boogieman
“Mt 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” It’s also worth noting the “till” in that sentence. This usage plainly states that after she bore Jesus, Joseph did “know” her. If the word “before” had been used, we couldn’t make that conclusion, but with “till”, there is no other way to read it.

Hm...
And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till the day of her death. (2 Samuel 6:23)
This usage plainly states that after the day of her death, Michal did "have a child". If the word “before” had been used, we couldn’t make that conclusion, but with “till”, there is no other way to read it.

:)

Do you see my point?
133 posted on 03/24/2015 6:35:24 AM PDT by paladinan (Rule #1: There is a God. Rule #2: It isn't you.)
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To: paladinan
Do you see my point?

That HEBREW translation is different than GREEK?

185 posted on 03/24/2015 9:26:26 AM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: paladinan

“Do you see my point?”

Your point seems to be that you don’t understand the difference in context between the two sentences. In the one you quote, the word “death” creates an absolute impediment to the natural reading, forcing an alternative reading. However, absent that modifier, the natural reading is always preferred. For example, let’s change that reference to anything other than “death” and see how it reads:

“And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till the day of her wedding.”

“And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till the next month.”

“And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till the harvest.”

Obviously, only the special case of death, which prevents the most natural reading, is changing the meaning of the phrase. I’ll offer a further example of how this is the only reasonable way to read such a phrase. Imagine I walk in to a police station and say to the desk sergeant:

“I didn’t kill my wife till I caught her with another man.”

Do you think the officer would not naturally believe that I had just confessed to murder?


209 posted on 03/24/2015 10:37:23 AM PDT by Boogieman
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To: paladinan
And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till the day of her death. (2 Samuel 6:23)

This usage plainly states that after the day of her death, Michal did "have a child". If the word “before” had been used, we couldn’t make that conclusion, but with “till”, there is no other way to read it.

Now there you go again...Perverting the scripture by changing words for an attempt to defend your indefensible position of Mary's not long for the records virginity...

2Sa 6:23 Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.

Onto does not mean until...

What's comical is you are far from the first Catholic to throw this deception at us...It's a word for word talking point memo that your religion puts out and we just crush it with Scripture...

231 posted on 03/24/2015 12:59:48 PM PDT by Iscool
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