So?
without her consent (”Be it done unto to me according to thy word”), there would have been no Incarnation. So she had an awful lot to do with our redemption.
At the wedding feast in Cana, she interceded or “advocated” for the hosts, and a miracle was worked in response to her advocacy. The disciples “began to believe” because of this miracle, which means that Mary played a role in causing the disciples to have faith.
Mary stood at the foot of the cross, suffering with Jesus. And Jesus gave Mary to John as his mother. (This is proof that Mary did not have other children, because legally, they would have been responsible for Mary.) John’s biological mother was still alive, and she was a different woman, so Jesus was not merely reminding John to take care of his mother.
So Jesus gave Mary to us, the Church, as our Mother, as his earthly life drew to a close.
so bogus of a claim. If she had said no you really think God would have said, "we'll I tried but Mary said no so that's it."
So yes or no to a fifth Marian dogma as it would be proclaimed by the pope? You in favor or not. It’s a simple question.
This proves nothing of the sort. At this time his brothers and sisters were hostile to Jesus. He left His mom in care of John as he was a believer. He was the disciple Jesus was closest to.
Did you study Greek when you were in seminary?
For the umpteenth time, Art; she 'consented' to NOTHING!
The angel TOLD her what was going to happen.
NOTHING Mary said after that made a bit of difference.
(She probably KNEW the story of Jonah...)